NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Full-Length Mock Test 5 (180 MCQs)

Take the NUMS Full-Length Mock Test 5 (180 MCQs): 180 multiple-choice questions (190 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review. Covers 81…

What this test covers

81 NUMS Biology
45 NUMS Chemistry
36 NUMS Physics
9 NUMS English
9 NUMS Logical Reasoning

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

Q1. A food sample gives no colour change with Benedict's reagent. After boiling with dilute HCl, neutralising with sodium hydrogencarbonate and retesting, a brick-red precipitate forms. The sample most likely contains:
- A. Sucrose, a non-reducing disaccharide that is hydrolysed to glucose and fructose ✓
- B. Maltose, a reducing disaccharide that is built from two glucose molecules
- C. Lactose, a reducing disaccharide that is built from glucose and galactose
- D. Glucose, a reducing monosaccharide that is already free in the solution
Answer: A. Sucrose, a non-reducing disaccharide that is hydrolysed to glucose and fructose
Explanation: No reaction at first means no free reducing group; acid hydrolysis releases glucose and fructose, which reduce Benedict's reagent. Sucrose fits.
Q2. Fish living in near-freezing water have membrane phospholipids rich in unsaturated fatty acids. This adaptation helps because the cis double bonds:
- A. Introduce kinks that stop tight packing of the tails, so the membrane stays fluid ✓
- B. Allow extra hydrogen bonds between tails, so the bilayer becomes more rigid
- C. Shorten the tails so that the whole bilayer becomes thicker and stiffer
- D. Convert the phospholipids into steroids that fill gaps between proteins
Answer: A. Introduce kinks that stop tight packing of the tails, so the membrane stays fluid
Explanation: Cis double bonds bend the hydrocarbon tails, preventing close packing and keeping the membrane fluid at low temperature.
Q3. During hair perming, a reducing agent is applied, the hair is wound on curlers, and an oxidising agent is then added. The reducing agent first breaks:
- A. Ester bonds between fatty acids and glycerol inside the hair shaft
- B. Peptide bonds linking neighbouring amino acids in the keratin chains
- C. Glycosidic bonds between sugar units attached to the keratin chains
- D. Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues of the keratin chains ✓
Answer: D. Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues of the keratin chains
Explanation: Reduction cleaves S–S bridges; the oxidising agent later re-forms them in the new shape, fixing the curl.
Q4. A heavy-metal ion binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site and changes the enzyme's shape. Raising the substrate concentration does not restore the original maximum rate. This is:
- A. Non-competitive inhibition, in which Vmax falls while Km stays unchanged ✓
- B. Substrate inhibition, in which excess substrate blocks the active site
- C. Competitive inhibition, in which Vmax stays unchanged while Km rises
- D. Feedback activation, in which the end product raises Vmax of the enzyme
Answer: A. Non-competitive inhibition, in which Vmax falls while Km stays unchanged
Explanation: Binding away from the active site cannot be overcome by more substrate; Vmax falls and Km is unchanged.
Q5. A double-stranded DNA fragment is 200 base pairs long and contains 60 adenine bases. How many hydrogen bonds hold its two strands together?
- A. 460
- B. 540 ✓
- C. 400
- D. 600
Answer: B. 540
Explanation: A = T = 60 pairs (2 bonds each) = 120; G = C = (200 − 60) = 140 pairs (3 bonds each) = 420; total 540.

The other 175 questions

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Q6. An enzyme solution is kept at 4 °C for ten minutes and then warmed to 37 °C, when its activity returns to normal. An identical sample boiled for ten minutes and cooled to 37 °C shows no activity. The difference arises because boiling:
- A. Irreversibly disrupts the tertiary structure and so destroys the active-site shape
- B. Hydrolyses all peptide bonds so the enzyme is broken into amino acids
- C. Converts the enzyme into a coenzyme that cannot bind to the substrate
- D. Removes the substrate molecules that the enzyme needs to be active
Q7. An enzyme loses its activity after dialysis against distilled water, but the activity returns when the dialysate is added back, even if the dialysate was boiled first. The missing component is most likely a:
- A. Competitive inhibitor that was washed out of the dialysis tubing bag
- B. Large protein subunit that was denatured while the enzyme was dialysed
- C. Small heat-stable coenzyme that passed out through the dialysis membrane
- D. Substrate polymer that was trapped inside the dialysis tubing bag
Q8. An electron micrograph shows a cell packed with smooth endoplasmic reticulum, lipid droplets and mitochondria with tubular cristae. The cell most probably secretes:
- A. Peptide hormones such as insulin
- B. Steroid hormones such as cortisol
- C. Antibodies such as immunoglobulin G
- D. Digestive enzymes such as trypsinogen
Q9. A plant cell at the point of incipient plasmolysis has a solute potential of −0.6 MPa. Its water potential at this point is:
- A. −0.6 MPa
- B. 0 MPa
- C. −0.3 MPa
- D. +0.6 MPa
Q10. A human secondary spermatocyte is examined at metaphase II. How many chromosomes and how many chromatids does it contain?
- A. 46 chromosomes and 46 chromatids
- B. 23 chromosomes and 46 chromatids
- C. 23 chromosomes and 23 chromatids
- D. 46 chromosomes and 92 chromatids
Q11. A drug blocks RNA polymerase I in cells. Which structure is directly unable to be assembled as a result?
- A. The nuclear envelope, since pore proteins can no longer be made
- B. Ribosomal subunits, since rRNA synthesis at the nucleolus is halted
- C. Centrioles, since microtubule triplets can no longer assemble
- D. Lysosomes, since hydrolytic enzymes can no longer be packaged
Q12. Cyanide stops ATP production in intestinal epithelial cells. Glucose uptake from the gut lumen falls, even though the glucose carrier has no ATP-binding site, because:
- A. Cyanide chemically converts the glucose into a form that the carriers cannot recognise
- B. Facilitated-diffusion channels remain closed whenever ATP is absent from the cytosol
- C. Na⁺/K⁺ pumps fail, so the sodium gradient that drives the glucose co-transporter collapses
- D. Glucose carriers cannot change shape unless an ATP molecule is bound to them directly
Q13. The liver cells of a patient lack functional peroxisomes. Which toxic by-product of oxidation reactions would accumulate because catalase is missing?
- A. Hydrogen peroxide
- B. Carbon monoxide
- C. Lactic acid
- D. Ammonia
Q14. In differential centrifugation of a liver homogenate, the pellet obtained at the lowest speed contains mainly:
- A. Ribosomes and small vesicles
- B. Mitochondria and lysosomes
- C. Nuclei and unbroken cells
- D. Microsomes and plasma membrane fragments
Q15. A yeast culture ferments 5 mol of glucose under anaerobic conditions. The net ATP formed and the CO₂ released are respectively:
- A. 30 mol ATP and 10 mol CO₂
- B. 10 mol ATP and 10 mol CO₂
- C. 10 mol ATP and 5 mol CO₂
- D. 5 mol ATP and 30 mol CO₂
Q16. A drug makes the inner mitochondrial membrane leaky to protons. Compared with normal cells, the treated cells will show:
- A. Unchanged O₂ consumption, no NADH oxidation and extra ATP synthesis
- B. Higher O₂ consumption, increased ATP synthesis and reduced heat release
- C. Lower O₂ consumption, normal ATP synthesis and reduced heat release
- D. Higher O₂ consumption, little ATP synthesis and extra heat release
Q17. From one glucose molecule, how many NADH molecules are produced by the link reaction and the Krebs cycle together (not counting glycolysis)?
- A. 8
- B. 10
- C. 6
- D. 4
Q18. Sugarcane leaves fix CO₂ first into oxaloacetate in mesophyll cells and run the Calvin cycle in bundle-sheath cells. This arrangement benefits the plant mainly by:
- A. Allowing the Calvin cycle to proceed without any NADPH supply
- B. Removing the need for the stomata to open during the day
- C. Producing additional ATP in the light reactions at night time
- D. Concentrating CO₂ around Rubisco, reducing photorespiration in hot, dry weather
Q19. Leaves illuminated only with green light photosynthesise poorly compared with leaves in red light, mainly because chlorophylls:
- A. Absorb green light but cannot pass its energy to the reaction centre
- B. Convert all the absorbed green light directly into heat
- C. Are broken down by green wavelengths within a few minutes
- D. Absorb very little green light and reflect most of it
Q20. An aquatic plant releases 20 oxygen bubbles per minute when a lamp is 10 cm away. Light intensity falls with the square of distance, and light is the only limiting factor so that rate is proportional to intensity. The expected rate with the lamp at 20 cm is:
- A. 5 bubbles per minute
- B. 10 bubbles per minute
- C. 15 bubbles per minute
- D. 2.5 bubbles per minute
Q21. Germinating castor-oil seeds consume 100 mL of O₂ and release 70 mL of CO₂ over the same period. The respiratory quotient of 0.7 indicates that the main substrate is:
- A. Fat, which contains little oxygen and needs more O₂ per CO₂ released
- B. Carbohydrate, which takes in and releases equal volumes of the two gases
- C. Organic acid, which holds much oxygen and gives a quotient above 1
- D. Sugar fermented to ethanol, which releases CO₂ without taking in O₂
Q22. A specimen from rotting wood is multicellular and non-motile, has chitin in its cell walls, feeds by secreting enzymes and absorbing the digested food, and reproduces by spores. It belongs to kingdom:
- A. Fungi
- B. Animalia
- C. Plantae
- D. Protista
Q23. The DNA polymerase used in PCR is taken from a bacterium that lives in hot springs. It is chosen because it:
- A. Stays active after repeated heating to about 95 °C during denaturation
- B. Works only at 0 °C so that each cycle can be stopped easily
- C. Copies RNA templates directly without needing any primers
- D. Removes the need for free nucleotides in the reaction mix
Q24. Antibiotic resistance spreads quickly between bacteria on a hospital ward, even between cells that are not related by division. Which description fits conjugation, one way this happens?
- A. Naked DNA from dead cells is picked up from the surrounding fluid
- B. A copy of a plasmid passes from a donor cell to a recipient through a pilus
- C. Two cells fuse and exchange equal halves of their nuclear material
- D. A bacteriophage carries a fragment of bacterial DNA to a new host
Q25. A bacterial culture infected with a phage suddenly lyses after UV exposure, although no free phages were found earlier. The phage DNA had most likely been:
- A. Integrated into the host chromosome as a prophage
- B. Packaged inside the host ribosomes until the cell was damaged
- C. Free in the cytoplasm as fully assembled mature virions
- D. Destroyed by host restriction enzymes before it could replicate
Q26. Azidothymidine (AZT) resembles thymidine and stops DNA chain growth once incorporated. It slows HIV mainly by blocking:
- A. Attachment of the virus to CD4 receptors on helper T cells
- B. Reverse transcriptase, which copies the viral RNA into DNA
- C. Release of new virions from the cell by budding
- D. Synthesis of the viral protein coat by host ribosomes
Q27. A horse mates with a donkey and produces a mule, which is healthy but sterile. According to the biological species concept, horse and donkey are:
- A. One species, since they can mate and produce living offspring
- B. Two subspecies, since their hybrids are viable and healthy
- C. Separate species, since they cannot produce fertile offspring together
- D. Two varieties of a single genus, since mules have no species name
Q28. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, the fusion of male and female gametes takes place in:
- A. The red blood cells of the human host
- B. The gut of a female Anopheles mosquito
- C. The salivary glands of the mosquito
- D. The liver cells of the human host
Q29. Penicillin kills growing bacteria by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan, yet it has little effect on Mycoplasma because this bacterium:
- A. Forms spores that remain inactive in all conditions
- B. Contains chitin in place of peptidoglycan in its cell wall
- C. Has a nucleus that protects its genetic material from drugs
- D. Lacks a cell wall and so has no peptidoglycan to be cross-linked
Q30. A patient who has undergone total gastrectomy later develops megaloblastic anaemia. The most likely cause is the loss of:
- A. Intrinsic factor needed for the absorption of vitamin B₁₂
- B. Mucus needed for the absorption of vitamin K in the stomach
- C. Pepsin needed to release iron from the haemoglobin in meat
- D. Lipase needed for the absorption of vitamin D in the stomach
Q31. A gallstone blocks the common bile duct. Which finding is expected?
- A. Complete failure of protein digestion with unchanged stool colour
- B. Failure of starch digestion because amylase cannot reach the gut
- C. Pale, fatty stools and poor absorption of vitamins A, D, E and K
- D. Dark stools with excess bile pigments and watery diarrhoea
Q32. After a meal rich in fat, cells of the duodenal wall release a hormone that makes the gall bladder contract and stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes. It is:
- A. Gastrin
- B. Cholecystokinin
- C. Insulin
- D. Secretin
Q33. After drinking milk, a man develops bloating, gas and watery diarrhoea. Which explanation fits lactose intolerance?
- A. Pancreatic amylase digests lactose into maltose far too slowly to absorb
- B. Undigested lactose draws water into the gut and is fermented by bacteria
- C. Bile salts fail to emulsify the milk fat in the duodenum and cause gas
- D. Lactose is digested so rapidly that glucose floods the blood and the gut
Q34. A long-term smoker has a barrel-shaped chest and breathlessness. A lung scan shows destroyed alveolar walls. Gaseous exchange is impaired mainly because of:
- A. Excess surfactant that prevents the alveoli from opening during inspiration
- B. A reduced surface area for diffusion and the loss of elastic recoil
- C. A shortage of haemoglobin in the red blood cells of the pulmonary capillaries
- D. Thick fibrous bands that block the pulmonary vein draining the alveoli
Q35. Carbon monoxide poisoning is dangerous mainly because carbon monoxide:
- A. Causes osmotic haemolysis of red cells in the lung capillaries
- B. Dissolves the surfactant lining the walls of the alveoli
- C. Binds haemoglobin about 200 times more strongly than oxygen does
- D. Replaces CO₂ in the plasma bicarbonate buffer of the blood
Q36. Fetal haemoglobin takes oxygen from maternal blood across the placenta because, compared with adult haemoglobin, it has:
- A. A lower oxygen affinity, so that its dissociation curve lies to the right
- B. The same affinity but many more red cells per unit of blood volume
- C. A higher oxygen affinity, so that its dissociation curve lies to the left
- D. A greater affinity for carbon dioxide, which drives oxygen across the placenta
Q37. In the systemic capillaries, bicarbonate ions leave the red blood cells and chloride ions enter to keep the cells electrically balanced. This movement is called:
- A. The Frank–Starling law
- B. The chloride shift
- C. The Haldane effect
- D. The Bohr effect
Q38. The first heart sound ('lub') heard through a stethoscope is produced by:
- A. Opening of the atrioventricular valves as the ventricles begin to fill
- B. Closure of the atrioventricular valves at the start of ventricular systole
- C. Closure of the semilunar valves at the start of ventricular diastole
- D. The rush of blood into the aorta as the aortic valve opens widely
Q39. A resting patient has a cardiac output of 5.1 L/min and a heart rate of 85 beats per minute. The stroke volume is:
- A. 6 mL
- B. 60 mL
- C. 72 mL
- D. 600 mL
Q40. A ring of bark including the phloem is removed from around a tree trunk. After some weeks the bark swells just above the ring and the roots eventually die. This shows that:
- A. Minerals are carried downward in the xylem and pile up above the ring
- B. Sugars are carried upward in the xylem and are blocked below the ring
- C. Sugars are carried downward in the phloem and cannot pass the gap
- D. Water is carried upward in the phloem and cannot pass the gap
Q41. During a drought, a hormone made in roots and leaves causes the guard cells to lose K⁺ and water so that stomata close. The hormone is:
- A. Cytokinin
- B. Abscisic acid
- C. Gibberellin
- D. Auxin
Q42. A patient with Addison's disease, in which aldosterone secretion is low, is most likely to show:
- A. High plasma Na⁺, high plasma K⁺ and low blood pressure
- B. Low plasma Na⁺, low plasma K⁺ and high blood pressure
- C. Low plasma Na⁺, high plasma K⁺ and low blood pressure
- D. High plasma Na⁺, low plasma K⁺ and high blood pressure
Q43. In a person, the glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure is 55 mmHg, the capsular hydrostatic pressure is 15 mmHg and the blood colloid osmotic pressure is 30 mmHg. The net filtration pressure is:
- A. 10 mmHg
- B. 40 mmHg
- C. 25 mmHg
- D. 70 mmHg
Q44. A desert kangaroo rat produces extremely concentrated urine. Its kidneys most probably have:
- A. No collecting ducts, so that water cannot be reabsorbed at all
- B. Many more glomeruli but collecting ducts without ADH receptors
- C. Very short loops of Henle and almost no medulla in the kidney
- D. Very long loops of Henle that build up a steep gradient in the medulla
Q45. Birds excrete nitrogenous waste mainly as uric acid, which suits an embryo inside a shelled egg because uric acid:
- A. Is very soluble and diffuses out through the pores of the shell
- B. Is converted back into ammonia that the embryo recycles for growth
- C. Is more toxic than urea but is exhaled quickly through the shell
- D. Is almost insoluble and non-toxic, so it can be stored as crystals
Q46. A freshwater fish, whose body fluids are hypertonic to the surrounding water, maintains osmotic balance by:
- A. Stopping urine production altogether and storing salts in its blood plasma
- B. Producing small volumes of concentrated urine and absorbing water through gills
- C. Producing large volumes of dilute urine and absorbing salts through the gills
- D. Drinking large volumes of water and excreting excess salt through the gills
Q47. At the onset of a fever caused by bacterial pyrogens, a patient feels cold and shivers although the core temperature is 38 °C. This happens because:
- A. The sweat glands have been activated by the sympathetic fibres
- B. The skin vessels have dilated to lose heat quickly to the surroundings
- C. The hypothalamic set point has been lowered below the body temperature
- D. The hypothalamic set point has been raised above the current body temperature
Q48. Rigor mortis stiffens the muscles some hours after death because:
- A. Actin filaments are digested by lysosomal enzymes within minutes
- B. Acetylcholine keeps on being released at every neuromuscular junction
- C. Calcium ions are pumped rapidly back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
- D. No ATP is available to detach the myosin heads from the actin filaments
Q49. A child living indoors with a very low intake of vitamin D develops bowed legs. The underlying problem is poor:
- A. Absorption of calcium from the gut, so bone mineralisation is weak
- B. Absorption of iron from the gut, so haemoglobin synthesis is low
- C. Synthesis of collagen in connective tissue, so skin heals slowly
- D. Secretion of growth hormone, so the long bones cannot elongate
Q50. Botulinum toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The expected effect is:
- A. Rigor, as ATP runs out in the muscle fibres at once
- B. Flaccid paralysis, as muscle fibres receive no stimulus to contract
- C. Tetany, as calcium floods the sarcoplasm of the muscle fibres
- D. Spastic paralysis, as muscle fibres contract continuously
Q51. In multiple sclerosis the myelin sheath of central neurons is damaged. Nerve impulses slow down because:
- A. The resting potential of the axon becomes less negative than normal
- B. They can no longer jump between nodes of Ranvier and must travel continuously along the axon
- C. Neurotransmitter is no longer released from the axon terminals
- D. Sodium channels at the nodes of Ranvier become much more numerous
Q52. A local anaesthetic such as lidocaine abolishes pain by blocking voltage-gated Na⁺ channels. In a treated axon:
- A. The Na⁺/K⁺ pumps run in reverse and push Na⁺ into the axon continuously
- B. The resting potential rises to about +30 mV and stays at that level
- C. Depolarisation does not reach threshold, so no action potential is propagated
- D. Repolarisation is too rapid because the K⁺ channels stay permanently closed
Q53. Opening of Cl⁻ channels in a postsynaptic neuron makes its membrane potential more negative. This effect is called:
- A. Repolarisation, producing the refractory period of the neuron
- B. Saltatory conduction, producing faster impulse transmission
- C. Hyperpolarisation, producing an inhibitory postsynaptic potential
- D. Depolarisation, producing an excitatory postsynaptic potential
Q54. A patient shows a resting tremor and slow movements. Post-mortem examination reveals loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra. The condition is:
- A. Parkinson's disease
- B. Alzheimer's disease
- C. Epilepsy
- D. Multiple sclerosis
Q55. After a head injury a man staggers, and when asked to touch his nose with a finger he misses repeatedly, although he understands speech and can move all his limbs. The damaged region is most likely the:
- A. Medulla oblongata
- B. Hypothalamus
- C. Cerebellum
- D. Thalamus
Q56. A woman has weight loss, heat intolerance, bulging eyes and a fast pulse. Blood tests show high T₄ and very low TSH. The low TSH is explained by:
- A. Negative feedback of the high T₄ on the pituitary and hypothalamus
- B. A lack of iodine in the diet that suppresses TSH release
- C. Destruction of the whole anterior pituitary gland by the disease
- D. Positive feedback of the high T₄ on the pituitary and hypothalamus
Q57. In a mountain village with iodine-poor soil, many people develop an enlarged thyroid gland. The enlargement happens because low thyroxine causes:
- A. Lowered TSH secretion, which lets the thyroid tissue swell with colloid
- B. Raised TSH secretion, which stimulates growth of the thyroid tissue
- C. Lowered ACTH secretion, which lets the thyroid tissue swell with colloid
- D. Raised calcitonin secretion, which stimulates growth of the thyroid tissue
Q58. A teenager has weight loss, extreme thirst and glucose in the urine. Autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic β-cells is found. Glucose appears in the urine because:
- A. Glucose is actively secreted into the tubule by the proximal tubule cells
- B. Insulin is blocking the reabsorption of glucose by the proximal tubule
- C. The glomerular membrane is destroyed and lets all glucose pass freely
- D. Blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold, so the tubules cannot reabsorb it all
Q59. A patient on long-term high-dose prednisolone, a synthetic glucocorticoid, is more prone to infections because glucocorticoids:
- A. Block the formation of red blood cells in the bone marrow
- B. Raise body temperature enough to kill the helpful gut bacteria
- C. Stop the secretion of mucus by all the epithelia of the body
- D. Suppress lymphocyte activity and inflammatory responses
Q60. A breast-fed newborn is protected against intestinal infections by antibodies in colostrum. This is an example of:
- A. Artificial active immunity, mainly through IgE
- B. Natural passive immunity, mainly through IgA
- C. Natural active immunity, mainly through IgM
- D. Artificial passive immunity, mainly through IgG injections
Q61. An Rh-negative mother gives birth to an Rh-positive first baby. Anti-D antibodies are given to her soon after delivery. They protect her next Rh-positive baby by:
- A. Making her red blood cells Rh-positive so that her immunity ignores them
- B. Destroying fetal Rh-positive cells before she makes memory cells against them
- C. Crossing the placenta and removing the Rh antigen from the fetal red cells
- D. Stimulating her B cells to produce more of her own anti-Rh antibodies
Q62. People with advanced HIV infection suffer repeated opportunistic infections mainly because the virus destroys:
- A. Red blood cells that carry the oxygen needed for phagocytosis
- B. Helper T cells that coordinate B-cell and cytotoxic T-cell responses
- C. Mast cells that release the histamine for inflammatory responses
- D. Platelets that are needed for repair and clotting at infection sites
Q63. A kidney transplant recipient is given cyclosporine, which suppresses T-cell activation. This lowers the risk of rejection because rejection is chiefly caused by:
- A. Red cells of the donor clumping together within the graft vessels
- B. Antibodies against ABO antigens that the donor kidney lacks
- C. Neutrophils that are made inactive by the recipient's cortisol
- D. Cytotoxic T cells recognising donor MHC proteins as foreign
Q64. Combined oral contraceptive pills contain oestrogen and progesterone. They prevent pregnancy mainly because the steady hormone levels:
- A. Suppress FSH and LH through negative feedback, so ovulation does not occur
- B. Destroy the corpus luteum soon after the ovum has been fertilised
- C. Stimulate an LH surge that releases several ova at the same time
- D. Raise FSH levels so that the follicle ruptures before the ovum matures
Q65. Home pregnancy kits detect a hormone made by trophoblast cells of the early embryo that keeps the corpus luteum secreting progesterone. It is:
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
- C. Relaxin
- D. Luteinising hormone
Q66. After a vasectomy, a man's semen contains no sperm, but his libido and male characteristics remain unchanged because:
- A. Leydig cells still secrete testosterone into the blood
- B. Sperm are absorbed in the epididymis and recycled into hormones
- C. Sertoli cells still make testosterone for the circulation
- D. The prostate gland takes over testosterone production
Q67. In a woman, the secondary oocyte released at ovulation is arrested at:
- A. Metaphase of meiosis II, completing division only after sperm entry
- B. Telophase of meiosis I, completing division only after implantation
- C. Prophase of meiosis I, completing division only after puberty begins
- D. Anaphase of mitosis, completing division only after the zygote forms
Q68. A 42-year-old woman has a baby with trisomy 21 (47 chromosomes). The most likely cause is:
- A. A point mutation in a gene on chromosome 21 in the egg
- B. Non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis in the egg
- C. Fertilisation of a single egg by two sperm at the same time
- D. Loss of the Y chromosome during early cleavage of the zygote
Q69. A phenotypic male with a 47,XXY karyotype will show how many Barr bodies in his cheek cells?
- A. None
- B. Three
- C. Two
- D. One
Q70. Two carrier parents for albinism (autosomal recessive) plan three children. The probability that none of the three is albino is:
- A. 9/16
- B. 3/4
- C. 27/64
- D. 1/64
Q71. A man of blood group AB and a woman of blood group O have children. Which blood groups can their children have?
- A. A, B, AB or O
- B. AB or O only
- C. A, B or AB only
- D. A or B only
Q72. A man with haemophilia (X-linked recessive) marries a woman who is not a carrier. Which statement describes their children?
- A. All daughters are carriers and no son is affected
- B. Half the sons are affected and half the daughters are carriers
- C. All sons are affected and no daughter is a carrier
- D. All sons are carriers and every daughter is affected
Q73. In a test cross AaBb × aabb, the offspring are 420 AaBb, 410 aabb, 90 Aabb and 80 aaBb. The recombination frequency between the two genes is:
- A. 83%
- B. 8.5%
- C. 50%
- D. 17%
Q74. In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 4% of people show an autosomal recessive disorder. The percentage of carriers is:
- A. 16%
- B. 20%
- C. 32%
- D. 64%
Q75. Hospital bacteria become resistant to an antibiotic. According to Darwinian natural selection, this happens because:
- A. Bacteria that absorb the drug become stronger and divide faster
- B. Resistant variants already present survive the treatment and reproduce more
- C. Bacteria acquire resistance during their lifetime and pass it to offspring
- D. The antibiotic induces resistance mutations that the cells then need
Q76. The streamlined bodies and fin-like limbs of sharks (fish) and dolphins (mammals) are examples of:
- A. Homologous structures inherited from a recent common ancestor with fins
- B. Homologous structures resulting from divergent evolution
- C. Vestigial structures resulting from a lack of selection pressure
- D. Analogous structures resulting from convergent evolution
Q77. A small group of 20 settlers colonises an island. A rare recessive allele at 0.1% on the mainland becomes 8% among their descendants. This best illustrates:
- A. Directional selection against the dominant allele
- B. Gene flow from the mainland towards the island
- C. The founder effect, a form of genetic drift
- D. Stabilising selection acting on the island population
Q78. A circular plasmid has three EcoRI recognition sites. Complete digestion with EcoRI gives how many fragments?
- A. 3
- B. 2
- C. 6
- D. 4
Q79. After bacteria are mixed with recombinant plasmids that carry an ampicillin-resistance gene, they are spread on agar containing ampicillin. The colonies that grow are:
- A. Cells that have lost the plasmid during division
- B. Transformed cells that have taken up the plasmid
- C. All cells, since ampicillin has no effect on bacteria
- D. Untransformed cells that make their own penicillinase
Q80. Starting from one double-stranded DNA molecule, how many double-stranded copies are present after 6 cycles of PCR?
- A. 12
- B. 32
- C. 128
- D. 64
Q81. In agarose gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments, the shortest fragments are found:
- A. Nearest the wells, near the positive electrode
- B. Nearest the wells, near the negative electrode
- C. Farthest from the wells, near the negative electrode
- D. Farthest from the wells, near the positive electrode
Q82. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in 0.50 mol of aluminium sulphate, Al₂(SO₄)₃?
- A. 6.0
- B. 12
- C. 2.0
- D. 4.0
Q83. Iron is extracted by Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂. How many kilograms of iron are obtained from 400 kg of Fe₂O₃ (M = 160 g mol⁻¹) if the yield is 90%? (Fe = 56)
- A. 140 kg
- B. 224 kg
- C. 280 kg
- D. 252 kg
Q84. Complete combustion of 0.60 g of a compound containing C, H and O gave 0.88 g of CO₂ and 0.36 g of H₂O. If its molar mass is 60 g mol⁻¹, what is its molecular formula? (C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
- A. C₃H₆O₃
- B. C₂H₄O
- C. C₂H₄O₂
- D. CH₂O
Q85. What energy is needed to excite the electron of a hydrogen atom from the ground state to the n = 2 level? (Eₙ = −13.6 / n² eV)
- A. 6.8 eV
- B. 13.6 eV
- C. 3.4 eV
- D. 10.2 eV
Q86. Which of these ground-state atoms has the largest number of unpaired electrons? (Atomic numbers: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Cu = 29)
- A. Mn
- B. Fe
- C. Cu
- D. Cr
Q87. Which of these ionic solids has the lowest lattice energy?
- A. NaCl
- B. KI
- C. MgO
- D. LiF
Q88. Pentane (n-pentane) boils at 36 °C whereas its isomer 2,2-dimethylpropane boils at 9.5 °C. What is the reason?
- A. Pentane has a permanent dipole moment, while 2,2-dimethylpropane has none
- B. The long chain has a larger surface area, so London dispersion forces are stronger
- C. 2,2-Dimethylpropane has a larger molar mass, so its forces are weaker
- D. Pentane molecules form hydrogen bonds but 2,2-dimethylpropane molecules cannot
Q89. How many times faster does methane (M = 16) effuse than sulphur dioxide (M = 64) under the same conditions?
- A. 2 times
- B. 4 times
- C. 8 times
- D. 1.4 times
Q90. How many moles of gas are present in a 8.2 dm³ cylinder at 3.0 atm and 300 K? (R = 0.082 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)
- A. 1.0 mol
- B. 2.0 mol
- C. 10 mol
- D. 0.10 mol
Q91. Hydrogen is collected over water at 25 °C. The total pressure is 760 torr and the vapour pressure of water at 25 °C is 24 torr. What is the partial pressure of the hydrogen?
- A. 24 torr
- B. 736 torr
- C. 784 torr
- D. 760 torr
Q92. Which of these liquids has the highest vapour pressure at room temperature?
- A. Water
- B. Glycerol
- C. Diethyl ether
- D. Ethanol
Q93. A single crystal shows different refractive indices when measured along different directions. What is this property called?
- A. Anisotropy
- B. Polymorphism
- C. Isomorphism
- D. Isotropy
Q94. The reaction PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) is endothermic. Which change increases the equilibrium yield of PCl₃?
- A. Adding a catalyst
- B. Raising the temperature
- C. Compressing the mixture to a smaller volume
- D. Adding more chlorine gas
Q95. What are the units of Kc for the reaction 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), with concentrations in mol dm⁻³?
- A. They have no units
- B. dm³ mol⁻¹
- C. mol dm⁻³
- D. mol² dm⁻⁶
Q96. A solution of a strong acid has a pH of 3. By what factor must it be diluted with water to raise the pH to 5?
- A. 1000 times
- B. 2 times
- C. 10 times
- D. 100 times
Q97. The Ksp of AgCl is 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁰ mol² dm⁻⁶. What is its solubility in 0.010 M NaCl solution? (Assume the Cl⁻ from AgCl is negligible.)
- A. 1.0 × 10⁻⁸ mol dm⁻³
- B. 1.0 × 10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³
- C. 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁰ mol dm⁻³
- D. 1.0 × 10⁻¹² mol dm⁻³
Q98. A reaction occurs by two steps: (1) NO₂ + NO₂ → NO₃ + NO (slow) and (2) NO₃ + CO → NO₂ + CO₂ (fast). What is the experimental rate law?
- A. rate = k[NO₂]²[CO]
- B. rate = k[NO₂][CO]
- C. rate = k[NO₂]²
- D. rate = k[NO₃][CO]
Q99. For a first-order reaction, which graph gives a straight line?
- A. [A] plotted against 1/time
- B. ln[A] plotted against time
- C. 1/[A] plotted against time
- D. [A] plotted against time
Q100. Standard enthalpies of formation: CO₂(g) = −394, H₂O(l) = −286 and C₂H₂(g) = +227 kJ mol⁻¹. What is the enthalpy of combustion of ethyne, C₂H₂ + 2½O₂ → 2CO₂ + H₂O(l)?
- A. −1301 kJ mol⁻¹
- B. −907 kJ mol⁻¹
- C. −453 kJ mol⁻¹
- D. −1755 kJ mol⁻¹
Q101. A steady current of 3.0 A is passed through aqueous silver nitrate for 32 minutes 10 seconds. What mass of silver (Ar = 108) is deposited? (F = 96 500 C mol⁻¹)
- A. 0.648 g
- B. 6.48 g
- C. 3.24 g
- D. 12.96 g
Q102. Copper does not liberate hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid. What is the reason?
- A. Hydrogen gas is far too soluble inside the copper
- B. Copper is unable to form any positive ions
- C. Copper forms an insoluble chloride layer on its surface
- D. The Cu²⁺/Cu couple has a positive standard potential of +0.34 V
Q103. Which period 3 element has the highest melting point?
- A. Sulphur
- B. Chlorine
- C. Sodium
- D. Silicon
Q104. Sodium burns in an excess of air. What is the principal product?
- A. Sodium superoxide, NaO₂
- B. Sodium peroxide, Na₂O₂
- C. Sodium nitride, Na₃N
- D. Sodium oxide, Na₂O
Q105. Carbon dioxide is passed through limewater continuously. The solution first turns milky and later becomes clear again. Why does it clear?
- A. Ca(OH)₂ is regenerated as the solution becomes more dilute
- B. CaCO₃ reacts with excess CO₂ and water to form soluble Ca(HCO₃)₂
- C. The excess CO₂ reduces CaCO₃ to calcium metal and carbon
- D. CaCO₃ decomposes into CaO and carbon dioxide gas on standing
Q106. Which halogen is a liquid at room temperature and pressure?
- A. Iodine
- B. Chlorine
- C. Bromine
- D. Fluorine
Q107. Why is cryolite (Na₃AlF₆) added during the electrolysis of aluminium oxide?
- A. It prevents the graphite anode from burning away in oxygen
- B. It acts as the reducing agent for the Al₂O₃ in the melt
- C. It lowers the melting point and improves conductivity of the melt
- D. It reduces Al³⁺ ions to aluminium metal at the cathode
Q108. Manganese dioxide is added to potassium chlorate before heating it to prepare oxygen. What is its role?
- A. It acts as a catalyst and is unchanged at the end
- B. It combines with the oxygen released to form manganese oxide MnO₃
- C. It lowers the amount of oxygen produced from the chlorate
- D. It acts as the oxidising agent and is used up in the reaction
Q109. How many ions are produced per formula unit when [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ dissolves completely in water?
- A. 10
- B. 7
- C. 3
- D. 4
Q110. Which oxide of nitrogen is a brown, paramagnetic gas?
- A. N₂O
- B. NO₂
- C. N₂O₅
- D. N₂O₄
Q111. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃COCH₂CH(CH₃)₂?
- A. 4-Methylpentan-3-one
- B. 3-Methylpentan-2-one
- C. 4-Methylpentan-2-one
- D. 2-Methylpentan-4-one
Q112. How many different monochloro-substitution products can be obtained from 2,2-dimethylpropane (neopentane) by free-radical chlorination?
- A. 3
- B. 4
- C. 1
- D. 2
Q113. A mixture of bromomethane and bromoethane is heated with sodium in dry ether. How many different alkanes are formed?
- A. 2
- B. 1
- C. 3
- D. 4
Q114. Butan-2-ol is dehydrated with concentrated H₂SO₄. Which alkene is the major product?
- A. But-2-ene
- B. 2-Methylpropene
- C. Butane
- D. But-1-ene
Q115. Propene is shaken with a solution of bromine in tetrachloromethane. What is formed?
- A. 1,2-Dibromopropane
- B. 1,1-Dibromopropane
- C. 1-Bromopropane
- D. 2-Bromopropane
Q116. Calcium carbide (M = 64 g mol⁻¹) reacts with water: CaC₂ + 2H₂O → C₂H₂ + Ca(OH)₂. What volume of ethyne at STP forms from 6.4 g of CaC₂? (Molar volume = 22.4 dm³)
- A. 22.4 dm³
- B. 1.12 dm³
- C. 2.24 dm³
- D. 4.48 dm³
Q117. What is the role of concentrated sulphuric acid in the nitrating mixture for benzene?
- A. It protonates nitric acid to generate the nitronium ion, NO₂⁺
- B. It acts only as a dehydrating agent and removes water from benzene
- C. It oxidises benzene to phenol before nitration occurs
- D. It supplies the nitro group directly as a nitrate ester
Q118. Bromoethane is warmed with alcoholic potassium cyanide. What is the organic product?
- A. Propanenitrile
- B. Ethanenitrile
- C. Ethyl isocyanide
- D. Ethanamide
Q119. Propan-1-ol is heated under reflux with an excess of acidified potassium dichromate. What is the main product?
- A. Propanone
- B. Propanoic acid
- C. Propanal
- D. Propan-2-ol
Q120. Ethanol and methoxymethane are isomers of C₂H₆O. Which reagent reacts with ethanol but not with methoxymethane at room temperature?
- A. Bromine water
- B. Sodium metal
- C. Aqueous sodium hydroxide
- D. Dilute sulphuric acid
Q121. Which compound gives a yellow precipitate when warmed with iodine and aqueous sodium hydroxide?
- A. Butanal
- B. Propanal
- C. Propanone
- D. Pentan-3-one
Q122. Ethanoic acid (M = 60) boils at 118 °C, whereas propan-1-ol (M = 60) boils at 97 °C. What is the reason?
- A. Ethanoic acid molecules form hydrogen-bonded dimers
- B. Ethanoic acid has a much higher molar mass
- C. Ethanoic acid has no hydrogen-bonding ability
- D. Propan-1-ol has no polar bonds
Q123. Which of these ethanoic acid derivatives is the most reactive towards hydrolysis by water?
- A. Ethanoic acid
- B. Ethyl ethanoate
- C. Ethanoyl chloride
- D. Ethanamide
Q124. A protein is denatured by heating. Which level of structure remains intact?
- A. Tertiary structure
- B. Secondary structure
- C. Primary structure
- D. Quaternary structure
Q125. In what two ways does RNA differ from DNA?
- A. It contains deoxyribose sugar and uracil in place of cytosine
- B. It contains ribose sugar and uracil in place of thymine
- C. It contains ribose sugar and thymine in place of adenine
- D. It contains a ribose sugar and no purine bases
Q126. Which pair of primary pollutants reacts in sunlight to form photochemical smog?
- A. Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons
- B. Sulphur dioxide and carbon dioxide
- C. Methane and carbon dioxide
- D. Carbon monoxide and chlorofluorocarbons
Q127. A vernier callipers has a vernier scale of 20 divisions that together equal 19 divisions of the main scale (1 mm each). In a measurement the vernier zero lies just beyond the 14 mm mark and the 7th vernier division coincides with a main-scale line. What is the reading?
- A. 14.70 mm
- B. 14.35 mm
- C. 14.50 mm
- D. 14.07 mm
Q128. A rectangle measures 4.20 cm by 3.1 cm. Following the rules for significant figures, how should the area be quoted?
- A. 13 cm²
- B. 13.020 cm²
- C. 13.0 cm²
- D. 13.02 cm²
Q129. A force F = 3j N acts at the position r = (2i + j) m from the origin. What is the torque r × F about the origin?
- A. 6k N m
- B. 3k N m
- C. 2k N m
- D. −6k N m
Q130. A boat is steered at right angles to the bank at 4 m s⁻¹ relative to the water, in a river flowing at 3 m s⁻¹. The river is 100 m wide. How far downstream does the boat land?
- A. 125 m
- B. 133 m
- C. 100 m
- D. 75 m
Q131. A block slides down a rough plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.1√3. What is the acceleration of the block? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
- A. 5.0 m s⁻²
- B. 1.5 m s⁻²
- C. 4.3 m s⁻²
- D. 3.5 m s⁻²
Q132. A rifle of mass 4 kg fires a 20 g bullet at 400 m s⁻¹. With what speed does the rifle recoil if it is free to move?
- A. 8 m s⁻¹
- B. 20 m s⁻¹
- C. 2 m s⁻¹
- D. 0.5 m s⁻¹
Q133. A car rounds an unbanked bend of radius 50 m. The coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4. What is the maximum speed at which it can take the bend without skidding? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
- A. 4.5 m s⁻¹
- B. 14 m s⁻¹
- C. 10 m s⁻¹
- D. 20 m s⁻¹
Q134. A solid cylinder rolls without slipping along a horizontal surface. What fraction of its total kinetic energy is rotational?
- A. 1/3
- B. 1/4
- C. 1/2
- D. 2/5
Q135. Why must a geostationary communications satellite orbit in the plane of the Earth's equator?
- A. Gravity is non-zero only in the equatorial plane of Earth
- B. Gravity points to the Earth’s centre, so only an equatorial orbit stays fixed over one point
- C. The Earth’s magnetic field holds it above the equator only
- D. Its orbital period would be shorter away from the equator, so it would drift
Q136. A lift of total mass 800 kg is raised at a steady 2 m s⁻¹ while a constant frictional force of 400 N opposes its motion. What power must the motor supply? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
- A. 0.8 kW
- B. 16.8 kW
- C. 8.4 kW
- D. 16.0 kW
Q137. A roller-coaster car starts from rest at the top of a smooth track 20 m above the ground. What is its speed at a point 5 m above the ground? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
- A. 20 m s⁻¹
- B. 14 m s⁻¹
- C. 17 m s⁻¹
- D. 10 m s⁻¹
Q138. In a hydraulic press the small and large pistons have areas of 4 cm² and 400 cm². What load can be raised by a force of 50 N applied to the small piston?
- A. 500 N
- B. 200 N
- C. 5000 N
- D. 50 N
Q139. A strip of paper is held at one end so that it hangs down and curves outwards. When you blow a stream of air along its upper surface the strip lifts. What explains this?
- A. Fast-moving air above has lower pressure than the still air below
- B. The moving air pushes the strip upwards by direct collision
- C. The air above is cooled by the stream and becomes denser than below
- D. Moving air is lighter than still air, so it floats the strip
Q140. A rope of mass per unit length 0.04 kg m⁻¹ is held under a tension of 100 N. What is the speed of a transverse wave on it?
- A. 25 m s⁻¹
- B. 50 m s⁻¹
- C. 5.0 m s⁻¹
- D. 2500 m s⁻¹
Q141. A small point source radiates sound equally in all directions with no absorption. At 2 m from it the intensity is 12 W m⁻². What is the intensity at 6 m?
- A. 1.3 W m⁻²
- B. 0.67 W m⁻²
- C. 4.0 W m⁻²
- D. 2.0 W m⁻²
Q142. A listener runs towards a stationary source of frequency 500 Hz at 34 m s⁻¹. If the speed of sound is 340 m s⁻¹, what frequency does she hear?
- A. 555 Hz
- B. 550 Hz
- C. 450 Hz
- D. 500 Hz
Q143. A body executes SHM with amplitude 5 cm and angular frequency 20 rad s⁻¹. What is its speed when its displacement from the mean position is 3 cm?
- A. 0.60 m s⁻¹
- B. 0.40 m s⁻¹
- C. 1.0 m s⁻¹
- D. 0.80 m s⁻¹
Q144. A coin lies at the bottom of a pond 1.2 m deep. Viewed from directly above, at what depth does it appear to be? (refractive index of water = 4/3)
- A. 1.6 m
- B. 0.60 m
- C. 1.2 m
- D. 0.90 m
Q145. A short-sighted person has a far point of 50 cm. What is the power of the lens that lets her see distant objects clearly?
- A. +0.5 D
- B. −0.5 D
- C. −2 D
- D. +2 D
Q146. Light of wavelength 600 nm passes through a single slit 0.20 mm wide onto a screen 2.0 m away. What is the width of the central bright fringe?
- A. 6.0 mm
- B. 12 mm
- C. 24 mm
- D. 1.2 mm
Q147. How much heat is needed to turn 20 g of ice at 0 °C into water at 20 °C? (latent heat of fusion = 336 J g⁻¹, specific heat of water = 4.2 J g⁻¹ °C⁻¹)
- A. 7040 J
- B. 6720 J
- C. 8400 J
- D. 1680 J
Q148. How many molecules are there in 5.6 litres of an ideal gas at STP? (molar volume at STP = 22.4 L; Avogadro's number = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)
- A. 6.0 × 10²³
- B. 1.5 × 10²³
- C. 3.0 × 10²²
- D. 1.1 × 10²⁴
Q149. A heat engine takes 2000 J from a source at 600 K and rejects 1500 J to a sink at 300 K. How does its efficiency compare with that of a Carnot engine working between the same temperatures?
- A. It equals the Carnot efficiency
- B. It is half of the Carnot efficiency
- C. It is twice the Carnot efficiency
- D. It is one quarter of the Carnot efficiency
Q150. A 10 μF capacitor charged to 200 V is disconnected from the battery and joined, plate to plate, to an identical uncharged capacitor. What is the total energy stored finally?
- A. 0.20 J
- B. 0.050 J
- C. 0.40 J
- D. 0.10 J
Q151. A proton is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 1000 V. What speed does it reach? (m = 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)
- A. 4.4 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹
- B. 1.9 × 10¹¹ m s⁻¹
- C. 4.4 × 10⁵ m s⁻¹
- D. 1.4 × 10⁷ m s⁻¹
Q152. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field at an angle to the field lines. What is the effect on the dipole?
- A. Both a net force and a torque act on it
- B. A torque acts on it but the net force is zero
- C. Neither a force nor a torque acts on it
- D. A net force acts on it but there is no torque
Q153. Three identical cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.3 Ω, are connected in series with a 2.1 Ω resistor. What current flows?
- A. 1.5 A
- B. 0.75 A
- C. 2.1 A
- D. 0.64 A
Q154. What is the resistance of a 10 m length of copper wire of diameter 1.0 mm? (resistivity of copper = 1.7 × 10⁻⁸ Ω m)
- A. 0.22 Ω
- B. 0.86 Ω
- C. 0.017 Ω
- D. 220 Ω
Q155. A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω gives full-scale deflection at 2 mA. What shunt resistance converts it into an ammeter reading up to 1 A?
- A. 0.20 Ω in parallel
- B. 500 Ω in series
- C. 50 Ω in parallel
- D. 0.20 Ω in series
Q156. Two coils lie close together. The current in the primary changes at 5 A s⁻¹ and induces an emf of 2 V in the secondary. What is their mutual inductance?
- A. 0.4 H
- B. 10 H
- C. 0.1 H
- D. 2.5 H
Q157. The mains supply is quoted as 230 V r.m.s. What is the peak value of the voltage?
- A. 230 V
- B. 460 V
- C. 163 V
- D. 325 V
Q158. A capacitor has a reactance of 60 Ω in a 50 Hz circuit. What is its reactance at 150 Hz?
- A. 60 Ω
- B. 6.7 Ω
- C. 180 Ω
- D. 20 Ω
Q159. A 12 V supply feeds a 6 V Zener diode, reverse-biased, through a 200 Ω series resistor. What current flows through the resistor?
- A. 20 mA
- B. 6 mA
- C. 60 mA
- D. 30 mA
Q160. What is the longest wavelength in the Lyman series of hydrogen (transitions to n = 1)? (Eₙ = −13.6/n² eV, hc = 1240 eV nm)
- A. 656 nm
- B. 91 nm
- C. 365 nm
- D. 122 nm
Q161. The mass defect of a helium-4 nucleus is 0.0305 u. What is its binding energy? (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²)
- A. 284 MeV
- B. 2.84 MeV
- C. 28.4 MeV
- D. 0.0305 MeV
Q162. A radioactive source of half-life 10 days has an activity of 400 Bq. What is its activity 30 days later?
- A. 133 Bq
- B. 100 Bq
- C. 50 Bq
- D. 200 Bq
Q163. Choose the correct option: The furniture in the waiting room ___ been replaced.
- A. has
- B. have
- C. are
- D. were
Q164. Choose the word closest in meaning to LAUDABLE.
- A. ordinary
- B. questionable
- C. laughable
- D. praiseworthy
Q165. Choose the word opposite in meaning to LETHARGIC.
- A. drowsy
- B. indifferent
- C. energetic
- D. sluggish
Q166. Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: The number of (A) / students who have (B) / failed are (C) / increasing (D).
- A. C
- B. B
- C. A
- D. D
Q167. Choose the correct replacement for the underlined part: "I look forward to meet you next week."
- A. to meet to you next week
- B. to be meet you next week
- C. to meeting you next week
- D. for meeting you next week
Q168. The word RETICENT, as in 'a reticent witness', means:
- A. reluctant to speak freely
- B. unable to hear things clearly
- C. quick to take offence
- D. eager to speak at length
Q169. Which spelling is correct for the word meaning 'careful and thorough'?
- A. Consciencious
- B. Conscientous
- C. Conscientious
- D. Concientious
Q170. Which is the correct passive form of: 'The doctor has prescribed the medicine.'
- A. The medicine has been prescribed by the doctor.
- B. The medicine has prescribed by the doctor.
- C. The medicine had been prescribed by the doctor.
- D. The medicine was being prescribed by the doctor.
Q171. Choose the best word to fill the blank: He worked very hard; ___, he failed the test.
- A. moreover
- B. therefore
- C. similarly
- D. nevertheless
Q172. Statements: Some tablets are capsules. No capsule is a syrup. Conclusions: I. Some tablets are not syrups. II. No tablet is a syrup. (Assume that every group named is non-empty.) Which option is correct?
- A. Only conclusion II follows
- B. Only conclusion I follows
- C. Both I and II follow
- D. Neither I nor II follows
Q173. Statements: All squares are rectangles. Some rectangles are red. Conclusions: I. Some squares are red. II. Some red things are rectangles. (Assume that every group named is non-empty.) Which option is correct?
- A. Only conclusion I follows
- B. Only conclusion II follows
- C. Both I and II follow
- D. Neither I nor II follows
Q174. Find the next number in the series: 5, 7, 11, 19, 35, ?
- A. 67
- B. 71
- C. 59
- D. 63
Q175. Find the next number in the series: 2, 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, ?
- A. 25
- B. 23
- C. 24
- D. 22
Q176. Five students A, B, C, D and E scored different marks. A scored more than B. D scored more than A. E scored more than C but less than B. Who ranks third (counting from the highest)?
- A. A
- B. B
- C. C
- D. E
Q177. Four nurses K, L, M and N each take a different one of four shifts: Morning, Noon, Evening and Night. K does not take the Night shift. N takes an earlier shift than M. M takes the Evening shift. Who takes the Night shift?
- A. M
- B. L
- C. K
- D. N
Q178. Statement: A school announces that students arriving after 8 am will be marked absent, in order to improve punctuality. Which assumption is implicit in the announcement?
- A. Students want to avoid being marked absent and will try to arrive on time
- B. Parents will be informed of the new rule only by letter
- C. Punctual students always get the highest marks
- D. All students currently arrive after 8 am every day
Q179. Read the two statements. A: On Monday, Saad drank a glass of milk that had been left out for several days. B: On Tuesday, Saad developed stomach pain and vomiting. Which is most likely?
- A. A and B are both effects of one common cause
- B. A is the cause and B is its effect
- C. A and B are completely independent of each other
- D. B is the cause and A is its effect
Q180. In a certain code, each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet and the values are added, so that CAT = 24 and DOG = 26. What is FAN in this code?
- A. 21
- B. 20
- C. 22
- D. 24