NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test
Take the NUMS Full-Length Mock Test 2 (180 MCQs): 180 multiple-choice questions (190 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review. Covers 81…
What this test covers
The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.
Q1. A student adds iodine solution to a food sample and it turns blue-black. Then the sample is treated with amylase for 20 minutes and retested; it stays yellow-brown. This shows that amylase has:
Answer: C. Hydrolysed starch to reducing sugars
Explanation: Iodine detects starch; loss of the blue-black colour after amylase shows starch was hydrolysed (to maltose).
Q2. Cellulose cannot be digested by human enzymes although starch can, mainly because cellulose contains:
Answer: B. β-1,4 glycosidic bonds
Explanation: Cellulose is a polymer of β-glucose linked by β-1,4 bonds; humans lack cellulase to hydrolyse them.
Q3. Phospholipids form a bilayer in water because each molecule has:
Answer: B. A hydrophilic phosphate head and hydrophobic fatty acid tails
Explanation: The amphipathic phospholipid orients its polar head to water and its non-polar tails inward, forming a bilayer.
Q4. Sickle-cell haemoglobin differs from normal haemoglobin by one amino acid (valine replacing glutamic acid). This shows that:
Answer: B. A change in primary structure can alter the protein's shape and function
Explanation: Primary structure determines folding; replacing a polar residue with a hydrophobic one makes Hb S polymerise at low O₂.
Q5. An mRNA segment reads 5′-AUGGCU-3′. The template strand of DNA it was transcribed from reads (3′→5′):
Answer: D. TACCGA
Explanation: The template is complementary and antiparallel to mRNA, with T pairing with A: 3′-TACCGA-5′.
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Q6. A graph of enzyme activity against temperature rises up to 37 °C and then drops sharply. The sharp drop above 37 °C is due to:
Q7. Doubling the enzyme concentration (with excess substrate) will:
Q8. Heavy metal ions such as Hg²⁺ inhibit enzymes non-competitively. Increasing substrate concentration in their presence will:
Q9. The induced-fit model differs from the lock-and-key model in proposing that:
Q10. A cell is treated with a drug that destroys microtubules. Which process would be blocked?
Q11. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are thought to have evolved from free-living prokaryotes. Which observation supports this?
Q12. In an organism with 2n = 8, a cell shows 4 chromosomes, each of two chromatids, lined up singly at the equator. The cell is in:
Q13. A primary spermatocyte has 46 chromosomes. Each secondary spermatocyte contains:
Q14. A cell has 16 chromosomes in G₁. How many chromatids are present at metaphase of mitosis?
Q15. Cancer cells differ from normal cells mainly in that they:
Q16. A red blood cell has no mitochondria and relies entirely on glycolysis. How many ATP does it gain (net) from each glucose molecule?
Q17. A chemical makes the inner mitochondrial membrane leaky to H⁺ ions. As a result:
Q18. Taking about 38 ATP per glucose aerobically and 2 ATP per glucose anaerobically, how many times more glucose must a cell break down anaerobically to make the same amount of ATP?
Q19. Plants lit only with green light grow poorly compared with those under red light because:
Q20. In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, the electrons lost from P680 are replaced by electrons from:
Q21. Which pair shares the MOST taxonomic levels?
Q22. Euglena carries out photosynthesis in light but can absorb organic food in darkness. Its placement in Protista reflects that it:
Q23. An organism has no nucleus, divides by binary fission and has a peptidoglycan wall. Its kingdom in the five-kingdom system is:
Q24. Biodiversity hotspots are conserved primarily because they:
Q25. A bacterium survives boiling for several minutes and later grows when conditions improve. It most likely formed:
Q26. A bacterial population doubles every 20 minutes. Starting with 100 cells, how many are present after 2 hours under ideal conditions?
Q27. Bacteria can pass an antibiotic-resistance plasmid to another bacterium through a pilus. This is:
Q28. An enveloped virus is inactivated by a detergent, while a non-enveloped virus is not. The best explanation is that the envelope:
Q29. Hepatitis B is spread mainly through:
Q30. Trypsinogen is activated in the duodenum by:
Q31. A patient who has had the ileum removed is most at risk of deficiency of:
Q32. A person lacking lactase drinks milk and develops bloating and diarrhoea. The main reason is that:
Q33. Cholecystokinin (CCK) released when fatty chyme enters the duodenum causes:
Q34. Vitamin K is produced in the human gut by:
Q35. After voluntarily hyperventilating for a minute, a person feels no urge to breathe for a short time. This is because hyperventilation:
Q36. A patient with a paralysed diaphragm struggles to inhale. Normally, during quiet inspiration:
Q37. A smoker develops emphysema. The main cause of breathlessness is:
Q38. A neonate's blood sample shows haemoglobin that is 50% saturated at a lower pO₂ than the mother's haemoglobin. This property allows the fetus to:
Q39. The 'lub' heart sound is produced by:
Q40. If the SA node stops working, the heart can still beat, but more slowly (about 40–60 per minute), because:
Q41. A cardiologist samples blood from four vessels. Which sample will have the highest oxygen saturation?
Q42. A person with group A⁻ blood needs a transfusion. Which donor blood is safest?
Q43. A blood sample from the renal artery and renal vein are compared. The renal vein will have a lower concentration of:
Q44. Aldosterone acts on the distal tubule and collecting duct to:
Q45. A patient with a large kidney stone is treated without surgery using focused shock waves that break the stone into fragments passed in urine. This technique is:
Q46. Ultrafiltration in the glomerulus happens mainly because:
Q47. A person with failed kidneys undergoes haemodialysis. Urea moves out of the blood into the dialysis fluid because:
Q48. The resting membrane potential of a neuron (about −70 mV) is maintained mainly by:
Q49. During the refractory period a neuron cannot fire a second impulse. This ensures that:
Q50. A stroke damages Broca's area in the left cerebral cortex. The most likely deficit is:
Q51. The part of the brain that controls heart rate and breathing is the:
Q52. Parkinson's disease is associated with degeneration of neurons that secrete:
Q53. A patient has high blood glucose, but insulin levels are normal or high. The likely cause is:
Q54. After a 24-hour fast, which change is expected in a healthy person?
Q55. Oxytocin released during childbirth causes uterine contractions, which stimulate more oxytocin release. This is an example of:
Q56. A child with untreated congenital thyroxine deficiency shows stunted growth and mental retardation. The condition is:
Q57. Plant shoots bend toward light because auxin:
Q58. A person bitten by a snake is given antivenom containing ready-made antibodies. This provides:
Q59. On a second exposure to the same antigen, antibody production is faster and greater because of:
Q60. The variable regions of an antibody molecule are responsible for:
Q61. Hay fever symptoms such as sneezing and a runny nose are caused mainly by release of:
Q62. A slow-twitch (red) muscle fibre differs from a fast-twitch fibre in having:
Q63. The joint between the humerus and the ulna at the elbow is a:
Q64. A child with soft, bowed leg bones due to vitamin D deficiency has:
Q65. To straighten the arm at the elbow while pushing against a load:
Q66. High progesterone levels in the second half of the menstrual cycle mainly:
Q67. Fertilisation in humans normally takes place in the:
Q68. The acrosome of a sperm contains enzymes that:
Q69. A woman has both fallopian tubes blocked but normal ovaries and uterus. Which treatment directly bypasses the cause of her infertility?
Q70. Syphilis is caused by:
Q71. Crossing red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragons gives all pink offspring. When pink plants are crossed together, the ratio of red : pink : white is:
Q72. A carrier woman for haemophilia marries a normal man. What is the probability that their son is haemophilic?
Q73. In a dihybrid cross AaBb × AaBb (independent assortment), what fraction of offspring are aabb?
Q74. Two genes that are very close together on the same chromosome will:
Q75. A colour-blind man marries a woman who is a carrier for colour blindness. What proportion of their daughters are expected to be colour-blind?
Q76. Darwin's finches on the Galápagos evolved different beak shapes suited to different foods. This is an example of:
Q77. Lamarck explained the long neck of giraffes by:
Q78. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move toward the positive electrode because:
Q79. DNA fingerprinting can identify a suspect from a blood sample because:
Q80. Bt cotton is resistant to insect pests because it:
Q81. Gene therapy for a single-gene disorder such as cystic fibrosis aims to:
Q82. In which molecule is the central atom sp hybridised?
Q83. Which of these molecules has the shortest carbon–carbon bond?
Q84. Which molecule has a net dipole moment?
Q85. Chlorine has a more negative (more exothermic) electron affinity than fluorine. What is the reason?
Q86. Unlike the other Group 2 elements, beryllium forms compounds such as BeCl₂ that are largely covalent. What is the main reason?
Q87. A small piece of sodium is dropped into water containing phenolphthalein. Which observation and products are correct?
Q88. Which oxide of a period-3 element dissolves in water to give a strongly alkaline solution?
Q89. Which hydrogen halide is the strongest acid in aqueous solution?
Q90. Lead commonly forms compounds in the +2 oxidation state rather than +4. What is this tendency called?
Q91. Which ion has the largest number of unpaired electrons?
Q92. In acidic solution the permanganate ion is reduced to Mn²⁺. How many moles of electrons does each mole of MnO₄⁻ gain?
Q93. In K₃[Fe(C₂O₄)₃] the oxalate ion acts as a bidentate ligand. What are the oxidation state and coordination number of iron?
Q94. Which metal is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils to make margarine/ghee?
Q95. Ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH) and dimethyl ether (CH₃OCH₃) have the same molecular formula. What type of isomers are they?
Q96. How many structural isomers have the molecular formula C₃H₈O?
Q97. Successive members of a homologous series differ by which unit?
Q98. Thermal cracking of long-chain alkanes is carried out in refineries mainly to obtain:
Q99. But-2-ene is treated with ozone and the ozonide is hydrolysed with zinc and water. What product is obtained?
Q100. Which compound gives a white precipitate with ammoniacal silver nitrate?
Q101. Ethyne is passed into dilute H₂SO₄ containing HgSO₄ at about 75 °C. What is the final organic product?
Q102. Benzene undergoes substitution rather than addition reactions even though it is unsaturated. Why?
Q103. Nitrobenzene is further nitrated with a mixture of concentrated nitric and sulphuric acids. What is the main product?
Q104. Bromomethane is heated with sodium metal in dry ether. Which alkane is formed?
Q105. How many moles of oxygen are needed for the complete combustion of 1 mole of ethane?
Q106. 2-Bromopropane is heated with alcoholic KOH. What is the main organic product?
Q107. Methylmagnesium bromide reacts with propanone, and the product is hydrolysed with dilute acid. What is formed?
Q108. Among the haloalkanes, iodoalkanes react fastest in substitution reactions. Why?
Q109. Which statement correctly describes an SN1 reaction?
Q110. Propan-2-ol is oxidised with acidified potassium dichromate. What is the product?
Q111. In the fermentation of glucose by yeast, which enzyme converts glucose into ethanol and carbon dioxide?
Q112. Phenol is shaken with bromine water at room temperature. What is observed?
Q113. A small piece of sodium is added to dry ethanol. Which products are formed?
Q114. Ethanal reacts with HCN in the presence of a little base. What type of reaction occurs?
Q115. Which reagent gives an orange/yellow precipitate with both aldehydes and ketones?
Q116. Which compound cannot undergo aldol condensation?
Q117. Butanone is reduced with sodium borohydride (NaBH₄). What is the product?
Q118. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
Q119. Which test distinguishes ethanoic acid from phenol?
Q120. Ethanoic acid reacts with phosphorus pentachloride (PCl₅). What is the organic product?
Q121. Ethanoic acid is reduced with lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH₄) in dry ether. What is formed?
Q122. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC), used for blood bags and tubing, is made from which monomer?
Q123. Sucrose does not reduce Fehling's solution, while glucose does. Why?
Q124. An enzyme loses its activity when heated to 70 °C. What has happened to it?
Q125. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) damage the ozone layer. What species released from them actually destroys ozone?
Q126. Which pair of gases is mainly responsible for acid rain?
Q127. Two parallel plates 0.5 cm apart have a potential difference of 100 V across them. What is the electric field between them?
Q128. In a Millikan-type experiment, an oil drop of mass 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁵ kg is held stationary in an electric field of 1.0 × 10⁵ N C⁻¹. How many excess electrons does it carry? (g = 10 m s⁻², e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)
Q129. Capacitors of 2 μF, 3 μF and 5 μF are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent capacitance?
Q130. The separation between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor is doubled while it remains in air. What happens to its capacitance?
Q131. A closed surface surrounds no charge, although a charge sits just outside it. What is the net electric flux through the surface?
Q132. What is the electric potential energy of a +1 μC and a +2 μC charge held 0.1 m apart in air? (k = 9 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻²)
Q133. A 2 Ω resistor is connected in series with a parallel pair of 3 Ω and 6 Ω resistors, across a 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance. What current does the battery supply?
Q134. Why is a potentiometer preferred to a moving-coil voltmeter for measuring the emf of a cell?
Q135. A 100 W lamp is used for 10 hours. How much electrical energy does it use?
Q136. A carbon resistor has colour bands brown, black, red. What is its resistance?
Q137. A cell of emf 6 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω delivers a current of 2 A. What is its terminal potential difference?
Q138. Two identical resistors are connected first in series and then in parallel across the same constant voltage. What is the ratio of total power in parallel to total power in series?
Q139. A thermistor with a negative temperature coefficient is warmed. What happens to its resistance?
Q140. A proton (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C) moves at 1.0 × 10⁶ m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a 0.5 T magnetic field. What force acts on it?
Q141. A charged particle moves in a circle perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. How does its period of revolution depend on its speed?
Q142. What is the magnetic field 2 cm from a long straight wire carrying 10 A? (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T m A⁻¹)
Q143. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω gives full-scale deflection at 1 mA. What series resistance converts it into a voltmeter of range 0–10 V?
Q144. A coil of area 0.05 m² is in a uniform field of 0.4 T, with the normal to the coil at 60° to the field. What is the magnetic flux through it?
Q145. Two long parallel wires carry currents in the same direction. What force do they exert on each other?
Q146. A 0.5 m rod moves at 4 m s⁻¹ perpendicular to a 0.2 T magnetic field. What emf is induced across its ends?
Q147. How much energy is stored in the magnetic field of a 0.2 H inductor carrying a current of 3 A?
Q148. An AC generator has a 100-turn coil of area 0.02 m² rotating at 50 rad s⁻¹ in a 0.1 T field. What is the peak emf?
Q149. An ideal transformer steps 11 V up to 220 V and its secondary supplies 0.5 A. What current is drawn by the primary?
Q150. What is the reactance of an inductor of inductance (0.1/π) H on a 50 Hz supply?
Q151. In a purely capacitive AC circuit, what is the phase relationship between current and voltage?
Q152. A small current still flows through a p–n junction diode under reverse bias. What causes it?
Q153. A transistor has a current gain β = 100. If the base current is 10 μA, what is the emitter current?
Q154. Which logic gate gives an output of 1 only when both of its inputs are 0?
Q155. How does a light-emitting diode (LED) produce light?
Q156. A metal surface has a work function of 2.48 eV. What is its threshold wavelength for photoemission? (hc = 1240 eV nm)
Q157. A hot body's peak emission wavelength is λₘ. If its absolute temperature is doubled, what is the new peak wavelength?
Q158. What is the energy of the photon emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom falls from n = 3 to n = 2? (Eₙ = −13.6/n² eV)
Q159. Characteristic (line) X-rays in an X-ray spectrum are produced by:
Q160. Carbon-11, used in PET scans, decays by positron (β⁺) emission. What is the daughter nucleus? (C: Z = 6)
Q161. A patient tissue absorbs 0.01 Gy of alpha radiation, which has a quality (radiation weighting) factor of 20. What is the equivalent dose?
Q162. A radioactive sample falls to 1/16 of its initial activity in 20 hours. What is its half-life?
Q163. Choose the word opposite in meaning to HAUGHTY.
Q164. In the sentence 'The new drug proved efficacious against the infection', the word EFFICACIOUS means:
Q165. Choose the word that best completes the sentence: The scientist's claim was met with ___ because she offered no evidence to support it.
Q166. Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: The scissors (A) / is lying (B) / on the table (C) / in the dressing room. (D)
Q167. Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: He insisted (A) / that he (B) / has seen (C) / the patient earlier. (D)
Q168. Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: I have (A) / been knowing him (B) / for many years (C) / now. (D)
Q169. Choose the grammatically correct sentence about two candidates.
Q170. Which is the correct spelling of the past tense of the verb 'occur' (to happen)?
Q171. Choose the correct replacement for the bracketed part: The doctor asked me [what was my name].
Q172. Five patients A, B, C, D and E are in a queue at a clinic. B is first. C is immediately behind A. E is somewhere behind C but is not last. D is not next to B. Who is fourth in the queue?
Q173. Study the pattern: (3, 4) → 10, (5, 6) → 28, (7, 2) → 12. Following the same rule, (6, 5) → ?
Q174. Which word is the odd one out? Insulin, Glucagon, Thyroxine, Haemoglobin
Q175. Statement: A notice in the hospital car park reads: "Vehicles parked in the ambulance bay will be towed away." Assumptions: I. Some people may park in the ambulance bay. II. Keeping the ambulance bay clear is important. Which assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement?
Q176. Read the two statements. A: Last week, a fire broke out in the main warehouse of a medicine supplier. B: This week, several pharmacies in the city have run short of common medicines. Which option best describes the relationship between them?
Q177. Read the two statements. A: Earlier this month, the price of petrol rose sharply. B: Later this month, rickshaw drivers in the city raised their fares. Which option best describes the relationship between them?
Q178. Argument: "Patients who take vitamin supplements visit doctors less often, so vitamin supplements prevent illness." Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?
Q179. "Ahmed's argument about the new fee structure must be wrong, because he failed his economics course." What is the main flaw in this reasoning?
Q180. Statement: Every doctor on night duty in a hospital must carry a pager. Dr Saima is on night duty tonight. Which conclusion follows?