NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test
Take the NUMS Full-Length Mock Test 1 (180 MCQs): 180 multiple-choice questions (190 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review. Covers 81…
What this test covers
The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.
Q1. A sample gives a brick-red precipitate with Benedict's reagent only after it is boiled with dilute HCl and neutralised. The sample most likely contains:
Answer: D. Sucrose
Explanation: Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar; acid hydrolysis splits it into glucose and fructose, which then reduce Benedict's reagent.
Q2. A protein is heated to 70 °C and loses its biological activity, but its amino acid sequence is unchanged. Which level of structure was NOT disrupted?
Answer: C. Primary
Explanation: Denaturation breaks hydrogen, ionic and hydrophobic interactions but not peptide bonds, so the primary structure (sequence) remains intact.
Q3. An oil that stays liquid at room temperature compared with a fat that is solid differs mainly in having:
Answer: B. More cis double bonds in its fatty acid chains
Explanation: Cis double bonds put kinks in fatty acid chains, preventing tight packing and lowering the melting point.
Q4. A double-stranded DNA sample contains 18% adenine. What percentage of its bases is guanine?
Answer: B. 32%
Explanation: A = T = 18%, so A + T = 36%; G + C = 64%, and G = 32%.
Q5. A polypeptide of 150 amino acids is made on a ribosome. Ignoring start and stop codons, how many mRNA nucleotides code for it, and how many water molecules are released in forming its peptide bonds?
Answer: B. 450 nucleotides; 149 water molecules
Explanation: 3 nucleotides per codon gives 3 × 150 = 450; n amino acids form n − 1 = 149 peptide bonds, each releasing one water molecule.
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Q6. Adding more substrate restores the reaction rate of an enzyme that was slowed by an inhibitor. The inhibitor is most likely:
Q7. Salivary amylase stops working once food reaches the stomach chiefly because:
Q8. In a dehydrogenase reaction, NAD⁺ binds loosely to the enzyme only during catalysis and then leaves carrying hydrogen. NAD⁺ is acting as a:
Q9. In end-product inhibition of a metabolic pathway, the final product usually binds:
Q10. A cell type secreting large amounts of digestive enzymes would be expected to have an abundance of:
Q11. Liver cells of a person who regularly takes sedative drugs show an increase in which organelle?
Q12. A child has an inherited disease in which undigested lipids accumulate inside cells because a hydrolytic enzyme is missing. The defective organelle is the:
Q13. When red blood cells are placed in distilled water they burst, but plant cells in distilled water do not. The difference is due to the:
Q14. Glucose enters intestinal cells against its concentration gradient by coupling with Na⁺ moving down its gradient. This is:
Q15. Which feature would identify a cell under the electron microscope as prokaryotic rather than eukaryotic?
Q16. A poison blocks cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain. Which process stops first as a direct result?
Q17. During intense sprinting, muscle fibres regenerate NAD⁺ for glycolysis by:
Q18. A leaf disc is kept in light but in an atmosphere with no CO₂. Which substance will accumulate in the chloroplast?
Q19. In photosynthesis, the oxygen released comes from:
Q20. How many CO₂ molecules are released in the Krebs cycle from the complete oxidation of one glucose molecule (excluding the link reaction)?
Q21. A newly found organism is multicellular, has cell walls of chitin, and absorbs nutrients from decaying wood. It belongs to kingdom:
Q22. An organism is eukaryotic, multicellular and photosynthetic with cellulose walls, but has no xylem or phloem and reproduces by spores. It is most likely a:
Q23. Lions (Panthera leo) and tigers (Panthera tigris) share a genus, and domestic cats (Felis catus) are in the same family, Felidae. Which statement must be true?
Q24. In the binomial name Homo sapiens, which statement is correct?
Q25. Penicillin kills dividing bacteria but does not harm human cells because it:
Q26. A Gram stain shows purple rods in one sample and pink rods in another. The pink bacteria have:
Q27. HIV can make DNA from its RNA genome inside a host cell because it carries the enzyme:
Q28. A bacteriophage integrates its DNA into the host chromosome and is copied with it for many generations without killing the cell. This is the:
Q29. Antibiotics are ineffective against the common cold mainly because viruses:
Q30. A patient with a blocked pancreatic duct would show the greatest reduction in digestion of:
Q31. Pernicious anaemia can follow removal of much of the stomach because the stomach normally secretes:
Q32. A drug blocks the H⁺/K⁺ ATPase (proton pump) of gastric parietal cells. Which consequence is most likely?
Q33. Cholera toxin makes intestinal cells secrete large amounts of Cl⁻ into the lumen. The severe watery diarrhoea results because:
Q34. A person with liver cirrhosis passes pale, fatty stools. The best explanation is reduced:
Q35. Premature babies often develop respiratory distress because their alveoli lack:
Q36. A person breathing in carbon monoxide becomes hypoxic even though the lungs are ventilated normally, because CO:
Q37. A rise in blood CO₂ during exercise shifts the oxygen–haemoglobin dissociation curve:
Q38. Most carbon dioxide is carried in blood as:
Q39. On an ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to:
Q40. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 80 mL give a cardiac output of:
Q41. A blood clot blocks a coronary artery. The immediate consequence is:
Q42. Oedema in a patient with severely low plasma albumin occurs because:
Q43. A diabetic patient's urine contains glucose although glucose is freely filtered in every person. The reason is that:
Q44. After drinking a large volume of water, a person's urine becomes dilute because:
Q45. The countercurrent multiplier that creates a concentrated medulla operates mainly in the:
Q46. Urea is formed in the liver from:
Q47. On a cold day, which response helps raise core body temperature?
Q48. A drug blocks voltage-gated Na⁺ channels in neurons. Which effect is expected?
Q49. Nerve impulses travel faster in myelinated than unmyelinated axons of the same diameter because:
Q50. An insecticide inhibits acetylcholinesterase. At a neuromuscular junction this would cause:
Q51. Touching a hot plate causes withdrawal of the hand before pain is felt because:
Q52. After a spinal injury a patient's knee-jerk reflex is still present, but he cannot feel touch on that leg or move it voluntarily. The damage is most likely in:
Q53. A person with an enlarged thyroid gland, low thyroxine and high TSH most likely has:
Q54. Which hormone works through a receptor inside the cell rather than on the plasma membrane?
Q55. A tumour of the adrenal cortex secretes excess cortisol. Which combination is expected?
Q56. Accidental removal of the parathyroid glands during thyroid surgery would most likely cause:
Q57. Excess growth hormone secreted after the epiphyseal plates have fused causes:
Q58. A child vaccinated against measles is protected for years because the vaccine:
Q59. Antibodies passing from mother to fetus across the placenta provide:
Q60. HIV causes immunodeficiency mainly by destroying:
Q61. Which cells directly kill virus-infected body cells?
Q62. During muscle contraction, which band of the sarcomere stays the same length?
Q63. After death, muscles become stiff (rigor mortis) because:
Q64. A toxin prevents the sarcoplasmic reticulum from releasing Ca²⁺ after a nerve impulse. Contraction fails because Ca²⁺ is not available to bind:
Q65. During contraction a sarcomere shortens from 2.4 µm to 2.0 µm. If the A band is 1.6 µm long, what is the total I band width in the contracted sarcomere?
Q66. A fertility drug that mimics the mid-cycle pituitary hormone peak is given to induce release of an egg. The drug mimics:
Q67. If fertilisation occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by:
Q68. A bodybuilder abusing synthetic testosterone develops a low sperm count. The best explanation is that high testosterone:
Q69. How many functional egg cells result from meiosis of one primary oocyte?
Q70. A human sperm cell carries how many autosomes?
Q71. Two heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt) are crossed. What fraction of the tall offspring are expected to be heterozygous?
Q72. A man with blood group AB marries a woman with blood group O. Which genotype is possible in their child?
Q73. A colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous normal. What proportion of their sons will be colour-blind?
Q74. A dihybrid cross AaBb × aabb (genes on different chromosomes) gives offspring in the ratio:
Q75. Down syndrome usually results from:
Q76. Antibiotic-resistant bacteria becoming common in a hospital after heavy antibiotic use is an example of:
Q77. A seal's flipper and a horse's foreleg contain the same set of bones (humerus, radius, ulna, carpals) though one swims and one runs. These limbs are:
Q78. A circular plasmid is cut with a restriction enzyme that has 3 recognition sites in it. How many DNA fragments are produced?
Q79. Starting from one DNA molecule, how many copies are present after 5 cycles of ideal PCR?
Q80. Restriction enzymes that produce 'sticky ends' are useful in genetic engineering because:
Q81. Bacteria are transformed with a plasmid carrying an ampicillin-resistance gene, with the insulin gene inserted into its lacZ gene, and plated on ampicillin + X-gal. Colonies carrying the recombinant plasmid will be:
Q82. How many hydrogen atoms are present in 9.0 g of water (H₂O, M = 18 g mol⁻¹)? (Nᴀ = 6.022 × 10²³)
Q83. 6 g of H₂ and 32 g of O₂ are mixed and ignited: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Which reactant is limiting and what mass of water forms?
Q84. A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% carbon and 14.3% hydrogen by mass, and its molar mass is 56 g mol⁻¹. What is its molecular formula?
Q85. What volume of oxygen at STP is needed for the complete combustion of 11 g of propane? C₃H₈ + 5O₂ → 3CO₂ + 4H₂O (M of C₃H₈ = 44)
Q86. Which sample contains the greatest total number of atoms?
Q87. What is the approximate mass of a single water molecule? (M = 18 g mol⁻¹, Nᴀ = 6.022 × 10²³)
Q88. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy all the orbitals with n = 3 and l = 2?
Q89. Which of the following ions is NOT isoelectronic with a neon atom?
Q90. What is the maximum number of electrons in an atom that can have the quantum numbers n = 4 and mₛ = +½?
Q91. Chromium (Z = 24) is part of the glucose tolerance factor. What is the ground-state electronic configuration of a chromium atom?
Q92. In Rutherford's gold-foil experiment, most alpha particles passed straight through the foil. What did this show?
Q93. Electrons in a sample of hydrogen atoms are all excited to the n = 4 level. How many different spectral lines can appear as they return to the ground state?
Q94. What is the density of carbon dioxide gas at STP? (M = 44 g mol⁻¹, molar volume = 22.4 dm³)
Q95. A gas occupies 500 cm³ at 27 °C and 760 torr. What volume will it occupy at 127 °C and 380 torr?
Q96. When the volume of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure is plotted against temperature in °C and the straight line is extended, where does it meet the temperature axis?
Q97. An unknown gas effuses at half the rate of oxygen under the same conditions. What is its molar mass?
Q98. A vessel contains 4 g of H₂ and 32 g of O₂ at a total pressure of 6 atm. What is the partial pressure of hydrogen?
Q99. Food cooks faster in a pressure cooker. What is the correct reason?
Q100. Which of the following substances forms a molecular solid held together mainly by London dispersion forces?
Q101. Ethanol (C₂H₅OH) boils at 78 °C, but its isomer dimethyl ether (CH₃OCH₃) boils at −24 °C. What explains this difference?
Q102. The boiling points of the halogens increase in the order F₂ < Cl₂ < Br₂ < I₂. What is the main reason?
Q103. How many atoms belong to one face-centred cubic (fcc) unit cell?
Q104. Glass softens gradually over a range of temperatures instead of melting sharply. Why?
Q105. For the reaction A ⇌ B, Kc = 4 at a certain temperature. What is Kc for 2B ⇌ 2A at the same temperature?
Q106. For the equilibrium N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g), how is Kp related to Kc?
Q107. A saturated solution of magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) contains 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³ of Mg²⁺ ions. What is the Ksp of Mg(OH)₂?
Q108. 1.0 mol of A and 1.0 mol of B are placed in a 1 dm³ flask: A + B ⇌ C + D. At equilibrium 0.6 mol of C is present. What is Kc?
Q109. In the Haber process (N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, ΔH negative), a moderate temperature of about 450 °C is used. Why not a much lower temperature?
Q110. For a zero-order reaction, what happens to the half-life if the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled?
Q111. In a study of A + B → products, doubling [A] alone makes the rate four times faster, while doubling [B] alone has no effect. What is the rate law?
Q112. A reaction has an activation energy of 80 kJ mol⁻¹ in the forward direction and ΔH = −30 kJ mol⁻¹. What is the activation energy of the reverse reaction?
Q113. What are the units of the rate constant for a second-order reaction?
Q114. A first-order reaction is 75% complete in 40 minutes. What is its half-life?
Q115. Powdered marble reacts with dilute HCl much faster than the same mass of marble chips. Why?
Q116. Standard enthalpies of combustion: C(graphite) = −394, H₂(g) = −286 and CH₄(g) = −890 kJ mol⁻¹. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of methane?
Q117. In the Born–Haber cycle for the formation of NaCl(s) from its elements, which step is exothermic?
Q118. 250 cm³ of 1.0 M HCl is mixed with 250 cm³ of 1.0 M NaOH. If the enthalpy of neutralisation is −57.3 kJ mol⁻¹, how much heat is released?
Q119. Standard enthalpy changes are quoted for standard conditions. What are these conditions?
Q120. When potassium chlorate is heated, 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂. Which change correctly identifies the element that is reduced?
Q121. A current of 2.0 A is passed through copper(II) sulphate solution for 965 s. What mass of copper is deposited? (Cu = 63.5, F = 96500 C mol⁻¹)
Q122. Aqueous copper(II) sulphate is electrolysed using inert platinum electrodes. What forms at each electrode?
Q123. What happens in a lead–acid storage battery while it is discharging?
Q124. A cell is built from Al³⁺/Al (E° = −1.66 V) and Ag⁺/Ag (E° = +0.80 V) half-cells. What is its standard emf?
Q125. What is the only product released by a hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell?
Q126. What is the shape of the BF₃ molecule and its F–B–F bond angle?
Q127. Two forces of equal magnitude act at a point, and their resultant has the same magnitude as either force. What is the angle between the two forces?
Q128. For A = 2i + 3j and B = 4i − j, what is the scalar product A · B?
Q129. Using the right-hand rule for unit vectors, what is k × i equal to?
Q130. A nurse tightens a valve with a 0.25 m spanner, pulling with 40 N at 30° to the spanner handle. What torque is applied?
Q131. A 10 N force acts at 30° above the horizontal. What is its horizontal component?
Q132. A ball is kicked at 20 m s⁻¹ at 30° above level ground. What is its time of flight? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
Q133. For the same ball (20 m s⁻¹ at 30°), what maximum height does it reach? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
Q134. A projectile launched at 30° above the horizontal has the same range as one launched with the same speed at which other angle?
Q135. A 60 kg patient stands in a hospital lift that accelerates upward at 2 m s⁻². What does a weighing scale under her read? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
Q136. A car starts from rest with a uniform acceleration of 2 m s⁻². How far does it travel during the 5th second only?
Q137. A 2 kg trolley moving at 6 m s⁻¹ collides with and sticks to a stationary 1 kg trolley. How much kinetic energy is lost?
Q138. The momentum of a body changes by 20 kg m s⁻¹ in 0.1 s. What average force acted on it?
Q139. A spring of force constant 200 N m⁻¹ is compressed by 10 cm. How much elastic potential energy is stored?
Q140. A car moves at a steady 25 m s⁻¹ against a total resistive force of 2000 N. What power does its engine deliver?
Q141. A 5 kg box slides 10 m across a floor with coefficient of kinetic friction 0.2. How much work is done against friction? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
Q142. The work done by gravity on a body moving between two points does not depend on the path taken. What does this show?
Q143. A body is dropped from rest from a height of 5 m. With what speed does it strike the ground? (g = 10 m s⁻², no air resistance)
Q144. A 0.5 kg stone is whirled in a horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m at 2 m s⁻¹. What centripetal force is needed?
Q145. A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.4 kg m² is brought from rest to an angular speed of 20 rad s⁻¹. How much work is done on it?
Q146. A road bend of radius 40 m is to be banked so that cars at 20 m s⁻¹ need no friction. What banking angle is required? (g = 10 m s⁻²)
Q147. A solid sphere and a thin ring of the same mass and radius are released together from rest at the top of the same incline and roll without slipping. Which reaches the bottom first?
Q148. A small sphere falls through a viscous liquid at terminal velocity. If its radius is doubled (same material), how does its terminal velocity change?
Q149. Blood flows at 0.5 m s⁻¹ through a vessel of cross-sectional area 2 cm². What is the volume flow rate?
Q150. Why is a blood-pressure cuff placed on the upper arm when measuring blood pressure?
Q151. A body performs SHM with amplitude 0.1 m and angular frequency 10 rad s⁻¹. What is its maximum acceleration?
Q152. A simple pendulum is taken to the Moon, where g is one-sixth of its value on Earth. How does its time period change?
Q153. Newton's formula for the speed of sound in air gave a value about 16% too low. What correction did Laplace make?
Q154. The tension in a stretched string is made four times greater, with its length unchanged. What happens to its fundamental frequency?
Q155. An ambulance with a 680 Hz siren moves away from a stationary listener at 20 m s⁻¹. What frequency does the listener hear? (speed of sound = 340 m s⁻¹)
Q156. Which type of wave cannot be polarised?
Q157. Two waves from coherent sources reach a point with a path difference of λ/2. What is their phase difference?
Q158. A gas expands at a constant pressure of 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa, increasing its volume by 2.0 × 10⁻³ m³. How much work does it do?
Q159. A Carnot engine rejects heat to a sink at 27 °C and has an efficiency of 25%. What is the temperature of its source?
Q160. 1000 J of heat is added reversibly to a system kept at a constant 250 K. What is its change in entropy?
Q161. Heat is supplied to a gas held in a rigid sealed container. According to the first law of thermodynamics, which is correct?
Q162. The internal energy of a fixed mass of an ideal gas depends only on which quantity?
Q163. Choose the correct option: Either the interns or the registrar ___ responsible for updating the chart.
Q164. Choose the correct option: I ___ in Peshawar since I was ten years old.
Q165. Choose the correct option: If he ___ earlier, he would not miss the bus every morning.
Q166. Choose the correct option: The thief was caught ___ the act of breaking into the dispensary.
Q167. Choose the correct option: She avoided ___ the question about her result.
Q168. Which is the correct passive form of: 'The nurse is dressing the wound.'
Q169. Choose the word closest in meaning to the capitalised word as used in the sentence: "The minister gave an EVASIVE reply when asked about the hospital budget."
Q170. Choose the word closest in meaning to the capitalised word as used in the sentence: "The two reports were so CONGRUENT that the inspector accepted both."
Q171. Choose the word opposite in meaning to TRIVIAL.
Q172. Statements: All vaccines are biological products. Some biological products are unstable at room temperature. Conclusions: I. Some vaccines are unstable at room temperature. II. Some biological products are vaccines. Which option is correct?
Q173. Statements: No reptile is warm-blooded. Some lizards are reptiles. Conclusions: I. Some lizards are not warm-blooded. II. No lizard is warm-blooded. Which option is correct?
Q174. If a student is caught cheating, he is disqualified. Bilal was not disqualified. Which conclusion is valid?
Q175. Pointing to a girl, Usman said, "She is the daughter of the only son of my paternal grandfather." How is the girl related to Usman?
Q176. Zain walks 6 km south and then 8 km east. What is the shortest distance between Zain and his starting point?
Q177. In a queue, Hassan is 18th from the front and 22nd from the back. How many people are in the queue?
Q178. Find the next number in the series: 1, 2, 6, 24, 120, ?
Q179. In a certain code, each letter is replaced by the letter in the same position counted from the other end of the alphabet (A↔Z, B↔Y, …). How is LIVER written in that code?
Q180. What is the angle between the hands of a clock at 2:30?