NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Chemistry — States of Matter, Energetics and Equilibria (Set 5)

Take the NUMS Chemistry — States of Matter, Energetics and Equilibria (Set 5): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Hydrogen is collected over water at 25 °C. The gas occupies 250 mL at a total pressure of 750 mmHg; the vapour pressure of water at 25 °C is 23.8 mmHg. How many moles of H₂ are present? (R = 0.08206 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹; 760 mmHg = 1 atm; T = 298.15 K)

    • A. 1.04 × 10⁻² mol
    • B. 9.76 × 10⁻³ mol ✓
    • C. 1.01 × 10⁻² mol
    • D. 1.07 × 10⁻² mol

    Answer: B. 9.76 × 10⁻³ mol

    Explanation: P(H₂) = 750 − 23.8 = 726.2 mmHg = 0.9555 atm. n = PV/RT = 0.9555 × 0.250/(0.08206 × 298.15) = 9.76 × 10⁻³ mol. Ignoring water vapour gives 1.01 × 10⁻².

  2. Q2. What is the root-mean-square speed of N₂ molecules (M = 28.0 g mol⁻¹) at 300 K? (u_rms = √(3RT/M), R = 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

    • A. 1550 m s⁻¹
    • B. 517 m s⁻¹ ✓
    • C. 268 m s⁻¹
    • D. 365 m s⁻¹

    Answer: B. 517 m s⁻¹

    Explanation: u = √(3 × 8.314 × 300/0.0280) = √(2.67 × 10⁵) = 517 m s⁻¹. (Using M in g mol⁻¹ would be wrong by √1000.)

  3. Q3. One mole of a gas at 200 K and 10.0 atm occupies 1.50 L. Using the compressibility factor Z = PV/nRT (R = 0.08206 L atm mol⁻¹ K⁻¹), what is Z and what does it imply?

    • A. Z = 0.914; molecular volume dominates
    • B. Z = 1.09; molecular volume dominates
    • C. Z = 1.09; attractive forces dominate
    • D. Z = 0.914; attractive forces dominate ✓

    Answer: D. Z = 0.914; attractive forces dominate

    Explanation: Z = (10.0 × 1.50)/(0.08206 × 200) = 15.0/16.41 = 0.914. Z < 1 means the gas is more compressible than ideal, which occurs when attractions dominate.

  4. Q4. The molar enthalpy of vaporisation of water is 40.7 kJ mol⁻¹. If it boils at 373.15 K under 101.3 kPa, what is the approximate vapour pressure at 363.15 K from the Clausius–Clapeyron equation ln(P₂/P₁) = −(ΔH/R)(1/T₂ − 1/T₁)? (R = 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

    • A. 70.6 kPa ✓
    • B. 61.0 kPa
    • C. 80.4 kPa
    • D. 92.1 kPa

    Answer: A. 70.6 kPa

    Explanation: ln(P₂/P₁) = −(40700/8.314)(1/363.15 − 1/373.15) = −4896 × 7.38 × 10⁻⁵ = −0.361. P₂ = 101.3 × e^(−0.361) = 70.6 kPa.

  5. Q5. How much heat is needed to convert 36 g of ice at 0 °C to steam at 100 °C? (ΔH_fus = 6.01 kJ mol⁻¹; specific heat of water 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹; ΔH_vap = 40.7 kJ mol⁻¹; M(H₂O) = 18 g mol⁻¹)

    • A. 108 kJ ✓
    • B. 135 kJ
    • C. 54 kJ
    • D. 94 kJ

    Answer: A. 108 kJ

    Explanation: n = 2 mol. Melting 2 × 6.01 = 12.0 kJ; heating 36 × 4.18 × 100 = 15.05 kJ; vaporising 2 × 40.7 = 81.4 kJ. Total = 108.5 kJ.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with cell edge a = 361 pm. What is its density? (Cu = 63.55 g mol⁻¹; N_A = 6.022 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 6.73 g cm⁻³
    • B. 8.97 g cm⁻³
    • C. 17.9 g cm⁻³
    • D. 4.49 g cm⁻³
  2. Q7. Iron has a body-centred cubic structure with cell edge 287 pm. What is the radius of an iron atom, if atoms touch along the body diagonal?

    • A. 203 pm
    • B. 102 pm
    • C. 143 pm
    • D. 124 pm
  3. Q8. For CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g), ΔH_f° values are CaCO₃ −1207.0, CaO −635.1 and CO₂ −393.5 kJ mol⁻¹, and ΔS° = +160.5 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹. Neglecting temperature dependence of ΔH and ΔS, above what temperature does decomposition become spontaneous?

    • A. About 560 K
    • B. About 1110 K
    • C. About 298 K
    • D. About 2220 K
  4. Q9. For N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), S° values are N₂ 191.6, H₂ 130.7 and NH₃ 192.5 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹, and ΔH° = −92.2 kJ. What is ΔG° at 298 K?

    • A. −92.2 kJ
    • B. −33.0 kJ
    • C. −151.4 kJ
    • D. +33.0 kJ
  5. Q10. Benzene burns with ΔH_c = −3267.6 kJ mol⁻¹ (to CO₂(g) and H₂O(l)). Given ΔH_f° of CO₂(g) = −393.5 and H₂O(l) = −285.8 kJ mol⁻¹, what is the standard enthalpy of formation of liquid benzene, C₆H₆(l)?

    • A. −49.2 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. +49.2 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. +3218 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. −6486 kJ mol⁻¹
  6. Q11. For CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g), Kc = 9.0 at a certain temperature. If 1.00 mol CO and 3.00 mol H₂O are placed in a 1.00 L vessel, how many moles of CO₂ form at equilibrium?

    • A. 0.900 mol
    • B. 1.00 mol
    • C. 0.750 mol
    • D. 0.951 mol
  7. Q12. For N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ at 500 K, Kc = 36. What is Kc for NH₃ ⇌ ½N₂ + 3/2 H₂ at the same temperature?

    • A. 6.0
    • B. 0.028
    • C. 0.333
    • D. 0.167
  8. Q13. Solid Mg(OH)₂ (Ksp = 1.8 × 10⁻¹¹) is shaken with pure water until saturated at 25 °C. What is the approximate pH of the solution? (Ignore water's own ionisation.)

    • A. 3.5
    • B. 10.5
    • C. 11.3
    • D. 9.7
  9. Q14. A solution contains 0.010 M Cl⁻ and 0.010 M CrO₄²⁻. AgNO₃ is added slowly. Ksp(AgCl) = 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰ and Ksp(Ag₂CrO₄) = 1.1 × 10⁻¹². Which solid appears first, and at what [Ag⁺]?

    • A. Ag₂CrO₄, at 1.8 × 10⁻⁸ M
    • B. AgCl, at 1.0 × 10⁻⁵ M
    • C. Ag₂CrO₄, at 1.0 × 10⁻⁵ M
    • D. AgCl, at 1.8 × 10⁻⁸ M
  10. Q15. Argon is pumped into a rigid sealed vessel containing N₂, H₂ and NH₃ at equilibrium (N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃). What happens to the equilibrium composition?

    • A. No change, since the partial pressures of the reacting gases are unchanged
    • B. It shifts left because the total pressure has increased
    • C. It shifts right because the total pressure has increased
    • D. It shifts right because argon lowers the mole fraction of NH₃
  11. Q16. Which change alters the numerical value of the equilibrium constant of a reaction?

    • A. Adding a catalyst
    • B. Changing the temperature
    • C. Doubling the pressure
    • D. Removing a product as it forms
  12. Q17. For a one-step reversible reaction A ⇌ B, the forward rate constant is 2.0 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹ and the reverse rate constant is 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ s⁻¹. What is the equilibrium constant?

    • A. 1.0 × 10⁻⁶
    • B. 2.5 × 10⁻³
    • C. 4.0
    • D. 0.25
  13. Q18. A 2.0 L flask holds N₂ at 3.0 atm and a 3.0 L flask holds O₂ at 2.0 atm, both at the same temperature. The flasks are joined by a tap and the gases mix without reacting. What is the final total pressure?

    • A. 2.4 atm
    • B. 5.0 atm
    • C. 1.2 atm
    • D. 2.5 atm
  14. Q19. Water (γ = 0.072 N m⁻¹, density 1000 kg m⁻³, contact angle 0°) rises in a glass capillary of radius 0.50 mm. Using h = 2γ cosθ/(ρgr) with g = 9.8 m s⁻², what is the height of rise?

    • A. 0.29 cm
    • B. 2.9 cm
    • C. 5.9 cm
    • D. 1.5 cm
  15. Q20. Solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) sublimes at normal atmospheric pressure. Which statement best explains this?

    • A. Its triple-point temperature is below 0 K, so liquid cannot form
    • B. Its triple-point pressure (about 5.2 atm) is above 1 atm
    • C. Its critical temperature is below room temperature, so it is a gas
    • D. CO₂ molecules form weak hydrogen bonds that break easily on warming
  16. Q21. Which substance has a standard enthalpy of formation of exactly zero at 298 K?

    • A. O₃(g)
    • B. I₂(s)
    • C. Br₂(g)
    • D. C(diamond)
  17. Q22. Equal numbers of moles of H₂ and O₂ are held at 300 K. Which statement about them is correct?

    • A. Same r.m.s. speed; H₂ has the greater average kinetic energy
    • B. Same average kinetic energy per molecule; H₂ molecules have 16 times the r.m.s. speed
    • C. H₂ has the greater average kinetic energy per molecule and four times the r.m.s. speed
    • D. Same average kinetic energy per molecule; H₂ molecules have four times the r.m.s. speed
  18. Q23. A gas mixture contains 4.0 g of H₂ and 32.0 g of O₂ (H = 1.0, O = 16.0) at a total pressure of 3.0 atm. What is the partial pressure of H₂?

    • A. 2.0 atm
    • B. 1.0 atm
    • C. 0.5 atm
    • D. 2.7 atm
  19. Q24. 20 mL of ethene (C₂H₄) is exploded with 100 mL of oxygen in a closed vessel, and the products are cooled to the original temperature, when water is liquid. The remaining gas is then shaken with excess KOH solution. What volume of gas remains?

    • A. 80 mL
    • B. 20 mL
    • C. 60 mL
    • D. 40 mL
  20. Q25. The molar enthalpy of combustion of ethanol is −1367 kJ mol⁻¹ (M = 46.07 g mol⁻¹). If the heat from burning 1.00 g is absorbed entirely by 200 g of water (c = 4.184 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹), what is the temperature rise?

    • A. 29.7 K
    • B. 71.0 K
    • C. 7.1 K
    • D. 35.5 K
  21. Q26. Which of the following has the highest standard molar entropy at 298 K?

    • A. NaCl(s)
    • B. H₂O(l)
    • C. He(g)
    • D. CO₂(g)
  22. Q27. A bubble of volume 1.00 cm³ is released at a depth of 20.0 m in a lake and rises to the surface at constant temperature. Taking atmospheric pressure as 101.3 kPa, water density 1000 kg m⁻³ and g = 9.8 m s⁻², what is the bubble volume at the surface?

    • A. 1.93 cm³
    • B. 3.93 cm³
    • C. 2.00 cm³
    • D. 2.93 cm³
  23. Q28. A liquid obeys Trouton's rule (ΔS_vap ≈ 85 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹) and has a molar enthalpy of vaporisation of 29.7 kJ mol⁻¹. What is its approximate normal boiling point?

    • A. 425 K
    • B. 298 K
    • C. 85 K
    • D. 349 K
  24. Q29. For 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), the equilibrium partial pressures are SO₃ 0.40 atm, SO₂ 0.20 atm and O₂ 0.10 atm. What is Kp?

    • A. 40 atm⁻¹
    • B. 4.0 atm⁻¹
    • C. 40 atm
    • D. 0.025 atm⁻¹
  25. Q30. A sealed syringe contains the equilibrium mixture N₂O₄(g) (colourless) ⇌ 2NO₂(g) (brown) at constant temperature. The plunger is suddenly pushed in to halve the volume. What is observed?

    • A. No colour change is seen at any time
    • B. The mixture first darkens, then gradually becomes paler
    • C. The mixture immediately becomes paler and stays pale
    • D. The mixture becomes darker and stays dark