NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Chemistry — Inorganic and Organic Chemistry (Set 6)

Take the NUMS Chemistry — Inorganic and Organic Chemistry (Set 6): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Temporary hardness in a water supply is due to dissolved calcium hydrogencarbonate. A household kettle boils 10.0 dm³ of water containing 162 mg dm⁻³ of Ca(HCO₃)₂ (M = 162 g mol⁻¹), decomposing it completely to CaCO₃, CO₂ and H₂O. What mass of CaCO₃ (M = 100 g mol⁻¹) is deposited as scale?

    • A. 1.62 g
    • B. 0.62 g
    • C. 0.50 g
    • D. 1.00 g ✓

    Answer: D. 1.00 g

    Explanation: Ca(HCO₃)₂ = 10.0 × 0.162 g = 1.62 g = 0.0100 mol. Ca(HCO₃)₂ → CaCO₃ + CO₂ + H₂O gives 1 mol CaCO₃ per mol, so mass = 0.0100 × 100 = 1.00 g.

  2. Q2. Xenon hexafluoride reacts completely with water: XeF₆ + 3H₂O → XeO₃ + 6HF. How many moles of hydrogen fluoride are formed from 0.25 mol of XeF₆?

    • A. 6.0 mol
    • B. 0.75 mol
    • C. 1.0 mol
    • D. 1.5 mol ✓

    Answer: D. 1.5 mol

    Explanation: The equation shows 6 mol HF per mol XeF₆, so 0.25 mol XeF₆ gives 0.25 × 6 = 1.5 mol HF. The other product, XeO₃, is an explosive solid.

  3. Q3. Bleaching powder, CaOCl₂ (Ca = 40, O = 16, Cl = 35.5), releases chlorine when treated with dilute acid: CaOCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + Cl₂. What is the maximum percentage of available chlorine (as Cl₂) by mass in pure CaOCl₂?

    • A. 44.1%
    • B. 55.9% ✓
    • C. 71.0%
    • D. 27.9%

    Answer: B. 55.9%

    Explanation: One mole of CaOCl₂ (127 g) releases one mole of Cl₂ (71 g). Available chlorine = 71/127 × 100 = 55.9%.

  4. Q4. Which of these oxides is neutral, showing neither acidic nor basic properties?

    • A. CaO
    • B. N₂O ✓
    • C. N₂O₅
    • D. Al₂O₃

    Answer: B. N₂O

    Explanation: N₂O (like CO and NO) does not react with water, acids or alkalis. N₂O₅ is acidic (forms HNO₃), CaO is basic, and Al₂O₃ is amphoteric.

  5. Q5. Phosphorus(V) oxide is completely hydrolysed by excess water. How many moles of H₃PO₄ are obtained from 1 mol of P₄O₁₀?

    • A. 1
    • B. 6
    • C. 4 ✓
    • D. 2

    Answer: C. 4

    Explanation: P₄O₁₀ + 6H₂O → 4H₃PO₄. Each P atom ends up in one H₃PO₄ molecule, and P₄O₁₀ contains four P atoms, so 4 mol of H₃PO₄ form.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. A single-chain silicate has the repeating unit (SiO₃)ₙ²ⁿ⁻, built from SiO₄ tetrahedra. How many oxygen atoms of each tetrahedron are shared with neighbouring tetrahedra?

    • A. 3
    • B. 2
    • C. 1
    • D. 4
  2. Q7. How are the 12 valence electrons of diborane, B₂H₆, distributed among its bonds?

    • A. 6 normal two-centre B–H bonds with no bridging bonds
    • B. 4 normal two-centre B–H bonds and 2 three-centre B–H–B bonds
    • C. 2 normal B–H bonds and 4 three-centre bonds
    • D. A B=B double bond and 6 B–H single bonds
  3. Q8. A yellow solution of potassium chromate turns orange when dilute sulphuric acid is added. Which change explains this?

    • A. CrO₄²⁻ is oxidised to CrO₅
    • B. 2CrO₄²⁻ + 2H⁺ → Cr₂O₇²⁻ + H₂O (no change in oxidation state)
    • C. The acid reduces Cr(VI) to Cr(IV)
    • D. CrO₄²⁻ is reduced to Cr³⁺, which is orange
  4. Q9. How many unpaired electrons are present in the Fe³⁺ ion (atomic number of Fe = 26) in its ground state?

    • A. 5
    • B. 6
    • C. 3
    • D. 4
  5. Q10. The anticancer drug [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] exists as two different compounds, cis and trans. What does this tell us about the geometry of the complex?

    • A. It is octahedral with two vacant positions
    • B. It is linear, because Pt(II) has coordination number 2
    • C. It is square planar, because a tetrahedral arrangement has no cis/trans forms
    • D. It is tetrahedral, because only that shape gives two isomers
  6. Q11. Limestone is added to the charge in a blast furnace. What is the main role of the limestone?

    • A. It supplies the heat needed for the reaction
    • B. It converts silica impurity into calcium silicate slag
    • C. It reduces iron ore to iron
    • D. It oxidises carbon to carbon monoxide
  7. Q12. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃–CH=CH–CH(OH)–CH₃ (ignoring E/Z isomerism)?

    • A. Pent-3-en-4-ol
    • B. 4-Hydroxypent-2-ene
    • C. Pent-2-en-4-ol
    • D. Pent-3-en-2-ol
  8. Q13. How many structural isomers (ignoring stereoisomers) have the molecular formula C₃H₆Cl₂?

    • A. 4
    • B. 3
    • C. 2
    • D. 5
  9. Q14. 2,3-Dihydroxybutanedioic acid (tartaric acid), HOOC–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–COOH, has two chiral centres. How many stereoisomers does it have in total?

    • A. 6
    • B. 2
    • C. 4
    • D. 3
  10. Q15. Which of these carbocations is the most stable?

    • A. CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺
    • B. CH₃CH₂⁺
    • C. CH₂=CH–CH₂⁺
    • D. CH₃⁺
  11. Q16. Propene is treated first with diborane (B₂H₆) in ether and then with alkaline hydrogen peroxide. What is the main product?

    • A. Propan-1-ol
    • B. Propanal
    • C. Propan-2-ol
    • D. Propanone
  12. Q17. Propyne is warmed with dilute sulphuric acid and mercury(II) sulphate. What is the final product?

    • A. Propanone
    • B. Propanal
    • C. Propene
    • D. Propan-2-ol
  13. Q18. Chlorobenzene undergoes nitration more slowly than benzene, yet the products are mainly 2- and 4-nitrochlorobenzene. What explains this?

    • A. Cl donates electrons inductively, which activates the ortho and para sites
    • B. Cl withdraws electrons by resonance, so the meta site is most electron-rich
    • C. Cl withdraws electrons inductively but donates its lone pair by resonance to o/p sites
    • D. Cl is bulky and blocks the meta positions only, without any electronic effect
  14. Q19. Which pair of reactants is best for preparing tert-butyl methyl ether, (CH₃)₃C–O–CH₃, by the Williamson synthesis?

    • A. Sodium tert-butoxide and iodomethane
    • B. Sodium methoxide and 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
    • C. Sodium methoxide and tert-butyl alcohol
    • D. Methanol and sodium tert-butoxide
  15. Q20. Benzaldehyde is warmed with concentrated sodium hydroxide solution. What are the products?

    • A. Benzoic acid only
    • B. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate
    • C. Benzyl alcohol only
    • D. Sodium benzoate and benzene
  16. Q21. Propanone is heated with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid. What is the product?

    • A. Propan-2-ol
    • B. Propene
    • C. Propane
    • D. Propanoic acid
  17. Q22. Which of these liberates carbon dioxide when added to aqueous sodium hydrogencarbonate?

    • A. Ethyl ethanoate
    • B. Phenol
    • C. Ethanol
    • D. Ethanoic acid
  18. Q23. Ethanamide is treated with bromine and aqueous sodium hydroxide (Hofmann bromamide reaction). Which amine is formed?

    • A. Propanamine
    • B. Ethanamine
    • C. Methanamine
    • D. N-Methylethanamide
  19. Q24. Aniline is diazotised with NaNO₂ and HCl, and the temperature is kept at 0–5 °C. Why is the temperature not allowed to rise much higher?

    • A. Aniline would be oxidised to nitrobenzene by nitrous acid
    • B. Sodium nitrite would freeze out of the solution
    • C. The diazonium salt decomposes to phenol and N₂ when warmed
    • D. The diazonium ion would reduce the HCl to chlorine gas
  20. Q25. Glycine has pKₐ values of 2.34 (–COOH) and 9.60 (–NH₃⁺). What is its isoelectric point, taking pI as the mean of the two pKₐ values?

    • A. 7.00
    • B. 9.60
    • C. 5.97
    • D. 2.34
  21. Q26. A protein is made of 120 amino acid residues arranged in two separate polypeptide chains. How many peptide bonds does it contain?

    • A. 240
    • B. 119
    • C. 120
    • D. 118
  22. Q27. Lactose, the sugar in milk, is hydrolysed by the enzyme lactase. What are the products?

    • A. Glucose and ribose
    • B. Glucose and fructose
    • C. Galactose and glucose
    • D. Two molecules of glucose
  23. Q28. Tristearin (M = 890 g mol⁻¹) is completely saponified by hot excess NaOH to give glycerol (M = 92 g mol⁻¹) and sodium stearate. What mass of glycerol is obtained from 8.9 g of tristearin?

    • A. 2.76 g
    • B. 0.31 g
    • C. 0.92 g
    • D. 9.2 g
  24. Q29. Nylon-6 is made from caprolactam; its repeating unit –NH(CH₂)₅CO– has a molar mass of 113 g mol⁻¹. A polymer sample has an average molar mass of 22 600 g mol⁻¹. What is the average degree of polymerisation?

    • A. 226
    • B. 100
    • C. 200
    • D. 400
  25. Q30. A few drops of freshly prepared iron(II) sulphate solution are added to a solution, and concentrated sulphuric acid is carefully run down the side of the test tube. A brown ring forms where the liquids meet. Which ion is detected?

    • A. Sulphate, SO₄²⁻
    • B. Chloride, Cl⁻
    • C. Ammonium, NH₄⁺
    • D. Nitrate, NO₃⁻