NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Chemistry — Fundamental Concepts, Atomic Structure and Bonding (Set 7)

Take the NUMS Chemistry — Fundamental Concepts, Atomic Structure and Bonding (Set 7): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A student wants 250 mL of a solution in which the chloride ion concentration is 0.20 mol dm⁻³, using solid CaCl₂ (Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5). What mass of CaCl₂ must be dissolved?

    • A. 2.78 g ✓
    • B. 5.55 g
    • C. 1.39 g
    • D. 2.22 g

    Answer: A. 2.78 g

    Explanation: [Cl⁻] = 0.20 M means [CaCl₂] = 0.10 M; moles = 0.10 × 0.250 = 0.025; mass = 0.025 × 111 = 2.78 g.

  2. Q2. Taking the density of water as 1.00 g mL⁻¹ and Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹, how many water molecules are present in one drop of 0.05 mL?

    • A. 3.01 × 10²²
    • B. 1.67 × 10²⁰
    • C. 1.67 × 10²¹ ✓
    • D. 5.57 × 10²¹

    Answer: C. 1.67 × 10²¹

    Explanation: 0.05 g ÷ 18 g mol⁻¹ = 2.78 × 10⁻³ mol; × 6.02 × 10²³ = 1.67 × 10²¹ molecules.

  3. Q3. What is the percentage by mass of oxygen in aluminium sulphate, Al₂(SO₄)₃ (Al = 27, S = 32, O = 16)?

    • A. 28.1%
    • B. 42.1%
    • C. 64.0%
    • D. 56.1% ✓

    Answer: D. 56.1%

    Explanation: M = 54 + 288 = 342; oxygen = 12 × 16 = 192; 192/342 × 100 = 56.1%.

  4. Q4. Using the Rydberg constant R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹, what is the wavelength of the first line of the Pfund series of hydrogen (n = 6 → n = 5)?

    • A. 2.63 μm
    • B. 4.05 μm
    • C. 7.46 μm ✓
    • D. 1.88 μm

    Answer: C. 7.46 μm

    Explanation: 1/λ = R(1/5² − 1/6²) = 1.097 × 10⁷ × 11/900; λ = 7.46 × 10⁻⁶ m = 7.46 μm (far infrared).

  5. Q5. How many unpaired electrons are present in a Mn²⁺ ion (atomic number of Mn = 25)?

    • A. 3
    • B. 7
    • C. 5 ✓
    • D. 4

    Answer: C. 5

    Explanation: Mn²⁺ is [Ar]3d⁵ (the two 4s electrons are lost first); the five 3d orbitals each hold one electron.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Using the spin-only formula μ = √[n(n + 2)] BM, what is the magnetic moment of Cr³⁺ (atomic number 24)?

    • A. 3.87 BM
    • B. 4.90 BM
    • C. 5.92 BM
    • D. 2.83 BM
  2. Q7. A slow neutron (mass 1.675 × 10⁻²⁷ kg) travels at 1000 m s⁻¹. Taking h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, what is its de Broglie wavelength?

    • A. 2.52 × 10⁹ m
    • B. 1.11 × 10⁻³ m
    • C. 3.96 × 10⁻¹⁰ m
    • D. 3.96 × 10⁻¹³ m
  3. Q8. Which of the following species has a linear shape because its central atom is sp hybridised and has no lone pair?

    • A. NO₂⁺
    • B. O₃
    • C. NO₂⁻
    • D. SO₂
  4. Q9. Using molecular orbital theory for N₂⁺ (14 electrons in N₂, so 13 in N₂⁺), what are its bond order and magnetic behaviour?

    • A. 2.5, diamagnetic
    • B. 3.0, diamagnetic
    • C. 2.0, paramagnetic
    • D. 2.5, paramagnetic
  5. Q10. HBr has a measured dipole moment of 0.79 D and a bond length of 141 pm. Taking the charge of an electron as 4.80 D per Å (i.e. 4.80 D for a separation of 1 Å), what is its approximate percentage ionic character?

    • A. 5.8%
    • B. 16.8%
    • C. 23.4%
    • D. 11.7%
  6. Q11. 20 cm³ of methane is mixed with 60 cm³ of oxygen and exploded; the mixture is then cooled to the original temperature and pressure, so that water is liquid. What is the total volume of gas remaining?

    • A. 20 cm³
    • B. 40 cm³
    • C. 80 cm³
    • D. 60 cm³
  7. Q12. Natural bromine consists of ⁷⁹Br and ⁸¹Br in nearly equal amounts. In the mass spectrum of Br₂ molecules, how many molecular-ion peaks appear and what is their approximate relative intensity pattern?

    • A. Three peaks, 1 : 1 : 1
    • B. Two peaks, 1 : 1
    • C. Four peaks, 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
    • D. Three peaks, 1 : 2 : 1
  8. Q13. An element has successive ionisation energies (kJ mol⁻¹) of 578, 1817, 2745 and 11 578 for its first four electrons. How many electrons does it have in its outermost shell?

    • A. 1
    • B. 4
    • C. 3
    • D. 2
  9. Q14. In the ground-state configuration of a chromium atom (Z = 24), how many orbitals are singly occupied?

    • A. 7
    • B. 4
    • C. 5
    • D. 6
  10. Q15. For the shell n = 3, how many distinct (l, mₗ) combinations have l ≠ 0?

    • A. 5
    • B. 8
    • C. 9
    • D. 3
  11. Q16. Using the Bohr model with E = −13.6 Z²/n² eV, what minimum energy is needed to remove the electron from a ground-state Li²⁺ ion?

    • A. 13.6 eV
    • B. 122.4 eV
    • C. 40.8 eV
    • D. 54.4 eV
  12. Q17. In the Bohr model, the energy of an electron in the n = 2 level of He⁺ is equal to the energy of an electron in which level of the hydrogen atom?

    • A. n = 2
    • B. n = 1/2
    • C. n = 1
    • D. n = 4
  13. Q18. Which ion has the same shape as the ammonia molecule?

    • A. H₃O⁺
    • B. NH₄⁺
    • C. BF₃
    • D. NO₃⁻
  14. Q19. A solution contains 10.0 g of sodium hydroxide dissolved in 90.0 g of water (NaOH = 40). What is its molality?

    • A. 2.22 mol kg⁻¹
    • B. 2.50 mol kg⁻¹
    • C. 0.25 mol kg⁻¹
    • D. 2.78 mol kg⁻¹
  15. Q20. What is the mole fraction of solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution of a non-volatile non-electrolyte (H₂O = 18)?

    • A. 0.0018
    • B. 0.0354
    • C. 0.0556
    • D. 0.0177
  16. Q21. 50 mL of 0.10 M BaCl₂ is mixed with 50 mL of 0.15 M Na₂SO₄ (Ba = 137, S = 32, O = 16). What mass of BaSO₄ precipitates?

    • A. 2.33 g
    • B. 1.17 g
    • C. 0.58 g
    • D. 1.75 g
  17. Q22. How many electrons are present in 4.4 g of carbon dioxide (C = 12, O = 16; Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)?

    • A. 2.41 × 10²⁴
    • B. 6.02 × 10²³
    • C. 1.32 × 10²⁴
    • D. 2.65 × 10²³
  18. Q23. Ethane burns as 2C₂H₆ + 7O₂ → 4CO₂ + 6H₂O. What mass of oxygen (O = 16) is needed to burn 5.6 dm³ of ethane measured at STP (22.4 dm³ mol⁻¹)?

    • A. 56 g
    • B. 8 g
    • C. 14 g
    • D. 28 g
  19. Q24. Which compound shows intramolecular hydrogen bonding and is therefore more volatile than its isomers?

    • A. Phenol
    • B. m-Nitrophenol
    • C. p-Nitrophenol
    • D. o-Nitrophenol
  20. Q25. PCl₃ is polar but PCl₅ (trigonal bipyramidal) is non-polar. What is the best explanation?

    • A. In PCl₅ the five equal bond dipoles cancel by symmetry
    • B. Chlorine is less electronegative in PCl₅
    • C. PCl₅ has a lone pair that cancels the dipoles
    • D. P–Cl bonds are non-polar in PCl₅
  21. Q26. A gas has a vapour density of 22 relative to hydrogen. How many molecules does 11 g of it contain? (Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 6.02 × 10²³
    • B. 1.51 × 10²³
    • C. 3.01 × 10²³
    • D. 2.41 × 10²⁴
  22. Q27. Among the isoelectronic ions O²⁻, F⁻, Na⁺ and Mg²⁺, which has the smallest radius, and why?

    • A. Na⁺, because it has the fewest protons
    • B. O²⁻, because it has the largest nuclear charge
    • C. Mg²⁺, because it has the largest nuclear charge
    • D. F⁻, because it has the most electrons
  23. Q28. Which ionic solid is expected to have the largest lattice energy magnitude?

    • A. KBr
    • B. MgO
    • C. CaCl₂
    • D. NaF
  24. Q29. The speed of an electron (m = 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg) is known to be 1.00 × 10³ m s⁻¹ with an uncertainty of 1%. Using Δx·Δp ≥ h/4π with h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, what is the minimum uncertainty in its position?

    • A. 5.8 × 10⁻³ m
    • B. 5.8 × 10⁻⁶ m
    • C. 1.2 × 10⁻⁶ m
    • D. 5.8 × 10⁻⁹ m
  25. Q30. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in one molecule of propyne, CH₃–C≡CH?

    • A. 6 σ and 3 π
    • B. 7 σ and 1 π
    • C. 5 σ and 3 π
    • D. 6 σ and 2 π