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NUMS Chemistry — Fundamental Concepts, Atomic Structure and Bonding (Set 6)

Take the NUMS Chemistry — Fundamental Concepts, Atomic Structure and Bonding (Set 6): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a…

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Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Boron has two stable isotopes, ¹⁰B (isotopic mass 10.013) and ¹¹B (isotopic mass 11.009). The relative atomic mass of natural boron is 10.81. What is the percentage abundance of ¹⁰B, to three significant figures?

    • A. 25.0%
    • B. 20.0% ✓
    • C. 19.0%
    • D. 80.0%

    Answer: B. 20.0%

    Explanation: Let the fraction of ¹⁰B be x: 10.013x + 11.009(1 − x) = 10.81, so x = (11.009 − 10.81)/(11.009 − 10.013) = 0.200, i.e. 20.0%. The value 80.0% is the abundance of ¹¹B.

  2. Q2. In a mass spectrometer, chlorine gas (Cl₂) gives molecular-ion peaks at m/z 70, 72 and 74 from the isotopic combinations ³⁵Cl–³⁵Cl, ³⁵Cl–³⁷Cl and ³⁷Cl–³⁷Cl. Taking the abundance ratio ³⁵Cl : ³⁷Cl as exactly 3 : 1, what is the relative intensity of the peaks at m/z 70 : 72 : 74?

    • A. 3 : 1 : 1
    • B. 9 : 3 : 1
    • C. 3 : 2 : 1
    • D. 9 : 6 : 1 ✓

    Answer: D. 9 : 6 : 1

    Explanation: Probabilities with p(³⁵Cl) = 3/4 and p(³⁷Cl) = 1/4: m/z 70 = (3/4)² = 9/16; m/z 72 = 2 × (3/4)(1/4) = 6/16 (two arrangements); m/z 74 = (1/4)² = 1/16. Ratio 9 : 6 : 1.

  3. Q3. What is the mass of one mole of electrons? (mass of an electron = 9.109 × 10⁻³¹ kg, Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 1.10 × 10⁻³ g
    • B. 5.49 × 10⁻⁷ g
    • C. 5.49 × 10⁻⁴ g ✓
    • D. 9.11 × 10⁻²⁸ g

    Answer: C. 5.49 × 10⁻⁴ g

    Explanation: Mass = 9.109 × 10⁻³¹ kg × 6.022 × 10²³ = 5.49 × 10⁻⁷ kg = 5.49 × 10⁻⁴ g. (The wrong option 5.49 × 10⁻⁷ is the figure in kg.)

  4. Q4. 5.4 g of aluminium is added to a solution containing 7.3 g of hydrogen chloride: 2Al + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂ (Al = 27, HCl = 36.5). What volume of hydrogen, at STP (22.4 dm³ mol⁻¹), is liberated?

    • A. 2.24 dm³ ✓
    • B. 3.36 dm³
    • C. 6.72 dm³
    • D. 4.48 dm³

    Answer: A. 2.24 dm³

    Explanation: Al = 0.20 mol (needs 0.60 mol HCl for complete reaction) but HCl = 0.20 mol only, so HCl is limiting. 6 mol HCl gives 3 mol H₂, so 0.20 mol HCl gives 0.10 mol H₂ = 2.24 dm³. Using Al as the basis would give 6.72 dm³.

  5. Q5. In a blast furnace, 160 kg of pure Fe₂O₃ is reduced: Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂ (Fe = 56, O = 16). If 98 kg of iron is actually obtained, what is the percentage yield?

    • A. 94.5%
    • B. 70.0%
    • C. 61.3%
    • D. 87.5% ✓

    Answer: D. 87.5%

    Explanation: Theoretical yield: 160 kg Fe₂O₃ = 1000 mol, giving 2000 mol Fe = 112 kg. Percentage yield = 98/112 × 100 = 87.5%. (61.3% results from wrongly dividing by 160.)

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. A sodium hydroxide solution is 20% NaOH by mass (NaOH = 40 g mol⁻¹, remainder water). What is its molality?

    • A. 6.67 m
    • B. 0.50 m
    • C. 6.25 m
    • D. 5.00 m
  2. Q7. A 12.3 g sample of hydrated magnesium sulphate, MgSO₄·xH₂O, leaves 6.0 g of anhydrous MgSO₄ (M = 120 g mol⁻¹) on strong heating. What is the value of x? (H₂O = 18 g mol⁻¹)

    • A. 7
    • B. 5
    • C. 6
    • D. 10
  3. Q8. A green laser pointer emits light of wavelength 532 nm at a power of 5.0 mW. About how many photons does it emit per second? (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹)

    • A. 2.68 × 10¹⁶
    • B. 1.34 × 10¹⁹
    • C. 1.34 × 10¹⁶
    • D. 7.45 × 10¹⁵
  4. Q9. Taking R_H = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹, what is the wavelength of the line emitted by a He⁺ ion in the transition n = 3 → n = 2? (1/λ = R_H Z²(1/n₁² − 1/n₂²))

    • A. 164 nm
    • B. 656 nm
    • C. 328 nm
    • D. 41 nm
  5. Q10. How many electrons in a ground-state vanadium atom (Z = 23) have the azimuthal quantum number l = 1?

    • A. 12
    • B. 15
    • C. 18
    • D. 6
  6. Q11. Which of these ions, each in its free gaseous state, has the largest spin-only magnetic moment? (Z: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

    • A. Fe²⁺
    • B. Mn²⁺
    • C. Ni²⁺
    • D. Cr³⁺
  7. Q12. Consider NO⁺, NO and NO⁻ (valence-electron counts 10, 11 and 12). Which statement follows from molecular orbital theory?

    • A. NO has bond order 3 and is diamagnetic
    • B. NO⁻ has the shortest N–O bond of the three
    • C. NO⁻ has bond order 2 and is diamagnetic
    • D. NO⁺ has bond order 3 and is diamagnetic, like N₂
  8. Q13. In the Lewis structure of the sulphate ion drawn with four S–O single bonds so that every atom obeys the octet rule, what is the formal charge on sulphur? (formal charge = valence electrons − non-bonding electrons − number of bonds)

    • A. +2
    • B. +4
    • C. −2
    • D. 0
  9. Q14. Which of these species is NOT trigonal planar?

    • A. CO₃²⁻
    • B. SO₃
    • C. SO₃²⁻
    • D. BF₃
  10. Q15. What are the number of lone pairs on the central atom and the molecular shape of IF₅?

    • A. Two lone pairs; square planar
    • B. One lone pair; see-saw
    • C. No lone pair; trigonal bipyramidal
    • D. One lone pair; square pyramidal
  11. Q16. Which of these compounds has a zero net dipole moment?

    • A. 1,2-Dichlorobenzene
    • B. 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
    • C. Chlorobenzene
    • D. 1,4-Dichlorobenzene
  12. Q17. Which ranking of boiling points, from highest to lowest, is correct for ethanol, ethylamine, dimethyl ether and propane (all of similar molar mass)?

    • A. Ethanol > ethylamine > dimethyl ether > propane
    • B. Dimethyl ether > ethanol > ethylamine > propane
    • C. Ethylamine > ethanol > dimethyl ether > propane
    • D. Ethanol > dimethyl ether > ethylamine > propane
  13. Q18. The H–P–H bond angle in phosphine (PH₃) is about 93°, whereas the H–N–H angle in ammonia is about 107°. What is the best explanation?

    • A. Phosphorus is more electronegative than nitrogen and pulls bonding pairs closer
    • B. Longer P–H bonds put bonding pairs farther apart, reducing their repulsion
    • C. Vacant d orbitals of phosphorus widen the angle by back-bonding
    • D. Phosphorus has two lone pairs while nitrogen has only one
  14. Q19. How many σ bonds and π bonds are present in a molecule of methylbenzene (toluene), C₆H₅CH₃, using the Kekulé structure of the ring?

    • A. 18 σ and 3 π
    • B. 12 σ and 3 π
    • C. 15 σ and 3 π
    • D. 15 σ and 6 π
  15. Q20. What is the hybridisation of the nitrogen atom in the nitrate ion (NO₃⁻) and in the nitrite ion (NO₂⁻), respectively?

    • A. sp³ and sp²
    • B. sp² and sp
    • C. sp² and sp²
    • D. sp³ and sp³
  16. Q21. Use the Born–Haber data for potassium chloride (kJ mol⁻¹): ΔH_f° (KCl) = −437; atomisation of K(s) = +89; first ionisation energy of K = +419; ½Cl₂(g) → Cl(g) = +122; electron affinity of Cl = −349. The lattice enthalpy is defined here as the enthalpy change when gaseous ions form one mole of solid KCl. What is its value?

    • A. −1155 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. −156 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. +718 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. −718 kJ mol⁻¹
  17. Q22. For an ionic solid, the coordination number depends on the radius ratio r(cation)/r(anion): 0.225–0.414 gives 4, 0.414–0.732 gives 6 and 0.732–1.0 gives 8. Zn²⁺ has radius 74 pm and S²⁻ has radius 184 pm. What coordination number is predicted for Zn²⁺ in ZnS?

    • A. 8
    • B. 6
    • C. 4
    • D. 12
  18. Q23. A He⁺ ion emits a line in the transition n = 4 → n = 2. This line has exactly the same wavelength as which transition in a hydrogen atom?

    • A. n = 3 → n = 1
    • B. n = 3 → n = 2
    • C. n = 2 → n = 1
    • D. n = 4 → n = 2
  19. Q24. 20 cm³ of carbon monoxide is mixed with 20 cm³ of oxygen and the mixture is sparked: 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂. What is the total volume of gas after the reaction, when measured at the original temperature and pressure and with any water absent?

    • A. 40 cm³
    • B. 20 cm³
    • C. 30 cm³
    • D. 50 cm³
  20. Q25. A compound contains 26.6% potassium, 35.4% chromium and 38.1% oxygen by mass (K = 39.1, Cr = 52.0, O = 16.0). What is its formula?

    • A. K₂Cr₂O₇
    • B. K₂Cr₂O₄
    • C. K₂CrO₄
    • D. KCrO₃
  21. Q26. How many moles of ions (cations plus anions) are present in 250 cm³ of 0.20 M aluminium sulphate, Al₂(SO₄)₃, assuming complete dissociation?

    • A. 0.25 mol
    • B. 0.15 mol
    • C. 0.50 mol
    • D. 0.10 mol
  22. Q27. Which sample contains the greatest total number of atoms? (He = 4, H = 1, N = 14, O = 16)

    • A. 4 g of He
    • B. 18 g of H₂O
    • C. 17 g of NH₃
    • D. 2 g of H₂
  23. Q28. The Lyman-α line of hydrogen has a wavelength of 121.6 nm. What is the energy of one mole of photons of this wavelength? (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹, Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 1.64 × 10³ kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. 984 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. 9.84 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. 492 kJ mol⁻¹
  24. Q29. How many radial nodes and angular nodes does a 5p orbital have?

    • A. 3 radial and 2 angular
    • B. 3 radial and 1 angular
    • C. 2 radial and 1 angular
    • D. 4 radial and 1 angular
  25. Q30. Which pair of nuclides are isotones (same number of neutrons)?

    • A. ¹⁴₆C and ¹⁴₇N
    • B. ¹₁H and ³₂He
    • C. ¹⁴₆C and ¹⁵₇N
    • D. ³⁵₁₇Cl and ³⁷₁₇Cl