NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Reproduction, Inheritance, Evolution and Biotechnology (Set 3)

Take the NUMS Biology — Reproduction, Inheritance, Evolution and Biotechnology (Set 3): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A heterozygous tall pea plant (Tt) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt). What fraction of the offspring is expected to be dwarf?

    • A. 3/4
    • B. 1/2 ✓
    • C. all
    • D. 1/4

    Answer: B. 1/2

    Explanation: Tt × tt gives 1 Tt : 1 tt.

  2. Q2. Two heterozygous parents (AaBb × AaBb) are crossed with independent assortment. What fraction of offspring is aabb?

    • A. 1/4
    • B. 1/8
    • C. 3/16
    • D. 1/16 ✓

    Answer: D. 1/16

    Explanation: (1/4)(1/4) = 1/16.

  3. Q3. In AaBb × AaBb, what fraction of the offspring shows the dominant phenotype for both traits?

    • A. 3/16
    • B. 3/4
    • C. 1/16
    • D. 9/16 ✓

    Answer: D. 9/16

    Explanation: The 9:3:3:1 ratio gives 9/16 A_B_.

  4. Q4. A colour-blind man marries a normal woman whose father was colour-blind. What is the probability that their son is colour-blind?

    • A. 1
    • B. 1/4
    • C. 1/2 ✓
    • D. 0

    Answer: C. 1/2

    Explanation: The woman is a carrier (X^C X^c); half of her sons receive X^c.

  5. Q5. A haemophilic father and a normal homozygous mother have children. Which statement is correct?

    • A. Half the daughters are haemophilic
    • B. All sons are haemophilic
    • C. All daughters are carriers and all sons are normal ✓
    • D. All children are normal and none are carriers

    Answer: C. All daughters are carriers and all sons are normal

    Explanation: Daughters receive the father's X^h and are carriers; sons receive the father's Y and the mother's normal X.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. A child has blood group O. Her mother is group A and her father is group B. What are the parents' genotypes?

    • A. IᴬI⁰ and IᴮI⁰
    • B. IᴬIᴬ and IᴮIᴮ
    • C. IᴬIᴬ and IᴮI⁰
    • D. IᴬI⁰ and IᴮIᴮ
  2. Q7. A man of group AB marries a woman of group O. Which blood groups are possible among their children?

    • A. O only
    • B. AB and O
    • C. A, B, AB and O
    • D. A and B only
  3. Q8. A red-flowered snapdragon (RR) crossed with a white-flowered one (rr) gives pink F₁ (Rr). If the F₁ are selfed, the phenotypic ratio of the F₂ is:

    • A. 1 pink : 1 red
    • B. 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
    • C. 3 red : 1 white
    • D. all pink
  4. Q9. In a cross between two plants heterozygous for genes located close together on the same chromosome, the offspring show mostly parental types. This indicates:

    • A. independent assortment
    • B. incomplete dominance
    • C. epistasis
    • D. linkage
  5. Q10. In a test cross, 42 parental and 8 recombinant offspring were obtained. The recombination frequency is:

    • A. 84%
    • B. 8%
    • C. 16%
    • D. 19%
  6. Q11. Down syndrome arises from nondisjunction in meiosis, producing a gamete with 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does the zygote have after fertilisation with a normal gamete?

    • A. 48
    • B. 45
    • C. 47
    • D. 46
  7. Q12. A female with a 45,X karyotype has:

    • A. Klinefelter syndrome
    • B. Turner syndrome
    • C. Down syndrome
    • D. Edward syndrome
  8. Q13. The risk of a trisomy 21 child rises with maternal age mainly because:

    • A. primary oocytes remain arrested in prophase I for decades
    • B. polar bodies are fertilised
    • C. the uterus is smaller
    • D. sperm quality falls
  9. Q14. Which event in meiosis I is responsible for the recombination of linked genes?

    • A. Crossing over between homologous chromatids
    • B. Cytokinesis
    • C. Separation of sister chromatids
    • D. DNA replication
  10. Q15. A cell with 2n = 8 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes does each daughter cell have at the end of meiosis II?

    • A. 4
    • B. 8
    • C. 16
    • D. 2
  11. Q16. How many different gamete combinations are possible from a cell with n = 3 chromosome pairs (ignoring crossing over)?

    • A. 6
    • B. 8
    • C. 3
    • D. 9
  12. Q17. In a human male, FSH acts on:

    • A. the prostate
    • B. the vas deferens
    • C. Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis
    • D. Leydig cells to make testosterone
  13. Q18. Secondary oocyte completes meiosis II only if:

    • A. it ovulates
    • B. it is released from the ovary
    • C. LH is high
    • D. it is fertilised by a sperm
  14. Q19. The corpus luteum persists in early pregnancy because:

    • A. oestrogen is low
    • B. LH rises sharply
    • C. hCG maintains it
    • D. FSH is high
  15. Q20. Which step in DNA replication joins Okazaki fragments?

    • A. DNA ligase
    • B. Topoisomerase
    • C. Primase
    • D. DNA helicase
  16. Q21. DNA replication is called semi-conservative because:

    • A. each new DNA molecule has one old and one new strand
    • B. both strands are new
    • C. the old strand is degraded
    • D. DNA is copied conservatively
  17. Q22. A segment of DNA template reads 3′–TAC GGA–5′. The mRNA produced is:

    • A. 5′–AUG GGA–3′
    • B. 5′–AUG CCU–3′
    • C. 5′–ATG CCT–3′
    • D. 5′–UAC GGA–3′
  18. Q23. A nonsense mutation changes a codon for an amino acid to UAA. The result is:

    • A. a longer protein
    • B. premature termination and a truncated polypeptide
    • C. no change in protein
    • D. a different amino acid
  19. Q24. Deletion of one nucleotide from the middle of a gene is likely to produce:

    • A. a silent mutation
    • B. a frameshift with most downstream codons changed
    • C. no change in reading frame
    • D. a single amino-acid change only
  20. Q25. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at:

    • A. the promoter only
    • B. random sites
    • C. the centromere
    • D. specific palindromic recognition sequences
  21. Q26. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards the:

    • A. negative electrode
    • B. positive electrode, with the larger fragments moving faster
    • C. positive electrode, with the smaller fragments moving faster
    • D. gel centre
  22. Q27. Which enzyme is essential for PCR and is stable at high temperature?

    • A. Reverse transcriptase
    • B. Taq DNA polymerase
    • C. Restriction endonuclease
    • D. DNA ligase
  23. Q28. Starting with one DNA molecule, how many copies are present after 10 cycles of PCR (ideal)?

    • A. 1024
    • B. 512
    • C. 2048
    • D. 100
  24. Q29. A recessive allele has a frequency of 0.3 in a population at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. What proportion of individuals are carriers (heterozygous)?

    • A. 0.21
    • B. 0.42
    • C. 0.09
    • D. 0.49
  25. Q30. The industrial melanism of peppered moths is an example of:

    • A. inheritance of acquired characters
    • B. mutation caused by pollution
    • C. genetic drift only
    • D. natural selection acting on existing variation