NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Reproduction, Inheritance, Evolution and Biotechnology (Set 2)

Take the NUMS Biology — Reproduction, Inheritance, Evolution and Biotechnology (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Sperm are stored and gain the ability to swim while passing through the:

    • A. Prostate gland
    • B. Epididymis ✓
    • C. Seminal vesicle
    • D. Urethra

    Answer: B. Epididymis

    Explanation: Sperm made in the seminiferous tubules mature and become motile during their passage through the coiled epididymis.

  2. Q2. The testes hang outside the abdomen in the scrotum because:

    • A. Testosterone is destroyed inside the body
    • B. Sperm production needs a temperature about 2–3 °C below core body temperature ✓
    • C. It allows sperm to be produced by meiosis without hormones
    • D. Blood supply to the abdomen is poor

    Answer: B. Sperm production needs a temperature about 2–3 °C below core body temperature

    Explanation: Spermatogenesis is most efficient slightly below body temperature; undescended testes can cause infertility.

  3. Q3. Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules are important because they:

    • A. Carry sperm to the urethra
    • B. Secrete testosterone in response to LH
    • C. Produce seminal fluid
    • D. Nourish developing sperm cells and respond to FSH ✓

    Answer: D. Nourish developing sperm cells and respond to FSH

    Explanation: Sertoli (nurse) cells support and nourish spermatogenic cells under FSH stimulation; Leydig cells make testosterone.

  4. Q4. A human primary oocyte has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a secondary oocyte have?

    • A. 23 ✓
    • B. 46
    • C. 92
    • D. 69

    Answer: A. 23

    Explanation: The first meiotic division halves the chromosome number, so the secondary oocyte and first polar body each have 23 chromosomes.

  5. Q5. A woman's blood shows high oestrogen, low progesterone and rising LH. She is most likely at which stage of the cycle?

    • A. Just before ovulation ✓
    • B. In the mid-luteal phase
    • C. In early pregnancy
    • D. During menstruation

    Answer: A. Just before ovulation

    Explanation: Rising oestrogen from the maturing follicle triggers the LH surge just before ovulation; progesterone rises only after ovulation from the corpus luteum.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. Combined contraceptive pills contain oestrogen and progesterone. They prevent pregnancy mainly by:

    • A. Destroying the endometrium
    • B. Blocking the fallopian tubes
    • C. Inhibiting FSH and LH release, so no follicle matures and ovulation does not occur
    • D. Killing sperm in the uterus
  2. Q7. Couples with blocked fallopian tubes may be helped by in-vitro fertilisation (IVF). In IVF, the step that replaces the tube's natural role is:

    • A. Mixing eggs and sperm in a dish so fertilisation occurs outside the body
    • B. Freezing sperm for later use
    • C. Removing the uterus
    • D. Injecting FSH to stimulate follicles
  3. Q8. After one sperm enters the egg, the zona pellucida hardens. The importance of this is to:

    • A. Prevent polyspermy (entry of more than one sperm)
    • B. Allow the egg to implant
    • C. Trigger the first meiotic division
    • D. Release FSH
  4. Q9. The placenta allows exchange between mother and fetus but normally prevents:

    • A. Passage of oxygen to the fetus
    • B. Direct mixing of maternal and fetal blood
    • C. Removal of fetal urea
    • D. Passage of antibodies (IgG) to the fetus
  5. Q10. In a flowering plant, the endosperm cells of a seed contain 36 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the plant's leaf cells?

    • A. 36
    • B. 12
    • C. 18
    • D. 24
  6. Q11. Two black guinea pigs produce some white offspring. If black (B) is dominant, the genotypes of the parents must be:

    • A. Both homozygous dominant (BB × BB)
    • B. One homozygous dominant and one heterozygous
    • C. Both heterozygous (Bb × Bb)
    • D. One homozygous dominant and one homozygous recessive
  7. Q12. A tall pea plant is crossed with a dwarf plant and gives 48 tall and 52 dwarf offspring. The tall parent's genotype was:

    • A. Homozygous dominant (TT)
    • B. Homozygous recessive (tt)
    • C. Either TT or Tt with equal chance
    • D. Heterozygous (Tt)
  8. Q13. In a dihybrid cross AaBb × aabb (genes unlinked), what proportion of offspring show both recessive traits?

    • A. 1/2
    • B. 1/16
    • C. 9/16
    • D. 1/4
  9. Q14. In cattle, a red bull (RR) mated with a white cow (WW) produces roan calves with both red and white hairs. This illustrates:

    • A. Epistasis
    • B. Sex linkage
    • C. Multiple alleles
    • D. Codominance
  10. Q15. A child has blood group O. The mother is group A. Which blood group could the father NOT have?

    • A. O
    • B. B
    • C. AB
    • D. A
  11. Q16. Haemolytic disease of the newborn may occur in a second pregnancy when:

    • A. An Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus after an earlier Rh-positive pregnancy
    • B. An Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus
    • C. The mother is blood group AB
    • D. Both parents are Rh-negative
  12. Q17. A colour-blind man marries a woman with normal vision whose father was colour-blind. What is the probability that their daughter is colour-blind?

    • A. 1/2
    • B. 1/4
    • C. 0
    • D. 1
  13. Q18. In humans, the sex of a baby is determined by:

    • A. The number of autosomes in the egg
    • B. Whether the egg carries an X or a Y chromosome
    • C. Whether the sperm carries an X or a Y chromosome
    • D. The mother's hormones during pregnancy
  14. Q19. A person with karyotype 45, X (one X chromosome and no Y) has:

    • A. Down syndrome
    • B. Patau syndrome
    • C. Turner syndrome
    • D. Klinefelter syndrome
  15. Q20. During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase synthesises:

    • A. A polypeptide chain
    • B. mRNA complementary to the template strand of DNA
    • C. tRNA from amino acids
    • D. A new DNA strand
  16. Q21. A segment of the DNA template strand reads 3′-TAC GGA-5′. Which amino acids are coded by the resulting mRNA codons, given AUG = methionine and CCU = proline?

    • A. Methionine followed by proline
    • B. Methionine followed by glycine
    • C. Tyrosine followed by glycine
    • D. Proline followed by methionine
  17. Q22. A point mutation changes a codon from GAA to GAG; both code for glutamic acid. This is called a:

    • A. Silent mutation
    • B. Nonsense mutation
    • C. Missense mutation
    • D. Frameshift mutation
  18. Q23. In gene cloning, bacteria that have taken up a plasmid are often identified by growing them on a medium containing an antibiotic. This works because:

    • A. Antibiotics make plasmids enter cells
    • B. Only bacteria without plasmids can grow
    • C. The antibiotic cuts the plasmid open
    • D. The plasmid carries an antibiotic-resistance marker gene
  19. Q24. A restriction enzyme cuts a circular plasmid at 3 sites. How many DNA fragments are produced?

    • A. 4
    • B. 2
    • C. 6
    • D. 3
  20. Q25. Restriction enzymes that produce 'sticky ends' are preferred in recombinant DNA work because sticky ends:

    • A. Prevent ligase from working
    • B. Are already joined by covalent bonds
    • C. Make the DNA single-stranded throughout
    • D. Have unpaired complementary bases that can base-pair with matching ends of another fragment
  21. Q26. DNA fingerprinting is used in forensic science because:

    • A. Each person (except identical twins) has a unique pattern of repetitive DNA sequences
    • B. All humans have identical DNA
    • C. It measures the amount of protein in cells
    • D. It shows a person's blood group
  22. Q27. Bt cotton is resistant to insect pests because it contains a gene from Bacillus thuringiensis that codes for:

    • A. A hormone that speeds flowering
    • B. A protein toxic to certain insect larvae
    • C. An antibiotic against fungi
    • D. An enzyme that fixes nitrogen
  23. Q28. In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of individuals show a recessive phenotype. What percentage are heterozygous carriers?

    • A. 36%
    • B. 84%
    • C. 24%
    • D. 48%
  24. Q29. A small group of birds colonises an island and, by chance, carries only a few of the alleles of the mainland population. This is an example of:

    • A. Convergent evolution
    • B. Natural selection
    • C. Founder effect
    • D. Gene flow
  25. Q30. The human appendix and the tiny pelvic bones in whales are examples of:

    • A. Fossils
    • B. Vestigial organs
    • C. Homologous organs with full function
    • D. Analogous organs