NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Reproduction, Inheritance, Evolution and Biotechnology (Set 1)

Take the NUMS Biology — Reproduction, Inheritance, Evolution and Biotechnology (Set 1): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A sudden surge of which hormone around day 14 of the menstrual cycle triggers ovulation?

    • A. Oxytocin
    • B. Prolactin
    • C. Progesterone
    • D. Luteinising hormone (LH) ✓

    Answer: D. Luteinising hormone (LH)

    Explanation: Rising oestrogen exerts positive feedback on the pituitary, causing an LH surge that ruptures the mature follicle.

  2. Q2. After ovulation, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. If fertilisation does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to:

    • A. A rise in progesterone and thickening of the endometrium
    • B. A fall in progesterone and shedding of the endometrium (menstruation) ✓
    • C. Production of hCG
    • D. Another immediate ovulation

    Answer: B. A fall in progesterone and shedding of the endometrium (menstruation)

    Explanation: Without hCG from an embryo, the corpus luteum regresses; falling progesterone causes the endometrium to break down.

  3. Q3. Pregnancy tests detect human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Its function in early pregnancy is to:

    • A. Trigger ovulation
    • B. Stimulate milk ejection
    • C. Maintain the corpus luteum so that progesterone secretion continues ✓
    • D. Start uterine contractions

    Answer: C. Maintain the corpus luteum so that progesterone secretion continues

    Explanation: hCG from the trophoblast keeps the corpus luteum active until the placenta takes over progesterone production.

  4. Q4. In males, testosterone is produced by the ______ under the influence of ______.

    • A. Sertoli cells; FSH
    • B. Prostate gland; oxytocin
    • C. Interstitial (Leydig) cells; LH ✓
    • D. Seminiferous tubules; prolactin

    Answer: C. Interstitial (Leydig) cells; LH

    Explanation: LH (ICSH) stimulates Leydig cells to make testosterone; FSH acts on Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis.

  5. Q5. From one primary spermatocyte, how many sperms are produced, compared with the number of ova from one primary oocyte?

    • A. 1 sperm and 4 ova
    • B. 4 sperms and 1 ovum ✓
    • C. 4 sperms and 4 ova
    • D. 2 sperms and 2 ova

    Answer: B. 4 sperms and 1 ovum

    Explanation: Meiosis of a spermatocyte gives four spermatids; oogenesis gives one ovum plus polar bodies due to unequal cytoplasmic division.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Which event of meiosis I produces genetic variation by exchanging segments between homologous chromatids?

    • A. Cytokinesis
    • B. DNA replication in interphase
    • C. Separation of sister chromatids in anaphase II
    • D. Crossing over at chiasmata during prophase I
  2. Q7. A pea plant heterozygous for tall stem (Tt) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt). What proportion of offspring will be dwarf?

    • A. 0
    • B. 1/2
    • C. 1/4
    • D. 3/4
  3. Q8. Two plants heterozygous for two unlinked genes (AaBb × AaBb) are crossed. What fraction of offspring will show both recessive traits?

    • A. 3/16
    • B. 1/4
    • C. 1/16
    • D. 9/16
  4. Q9. A cross between red-flowered and white-flowered snapdragons gives all pink offspring. When the pink plants are self-crossed, the F₂ ratio is:

    • A. 3 red : 1 white
    • B. 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
    • C. All pink
    • D. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
  5. Q10. A man with blood group A (genotype IᴬIᴼ) marries a woman with group B (IᴮIᴼ). Which blood groups are possible in their children?

    • A. AB only
    • B. A and B only
    • C. A, B and AB only
    • D. A, B, AB and O
  6. Q11. A woman who is a carrier of haemophilia marries a normal man. What is the probability that their son will be haemophilic?

    • A. 0
    • B. 1/4
    • C. 1/2
    • D. 1
  7. Q12. Red–green colour blindness is much more common in men than in women because:

    • A. The gene is on the Y chromosome
    • B. Males have two X chromosomes
    • C. It is caused by an autosomal dominant allele
    • D. The gene is X-linked recessive and males have only one X chromosome
  8. Q13. Human skin colour shows a continuous range of shades controlled by several genes with additive effects. This is an example of:

    • A. Polygenic inheritance
    • B. Codominance
    • C. Multiple allelism
    • D. Epistasis
  9. Q14. Two genes located very close together on the same chromosome usually do not assort independently. They are said to be:

    • A. Codominant alleles
    • B. Linked genes
    • C. Multiple alleles
    • D. Lethal genes
  10. Q15. Down syndrome usually results from non-disjunction producing a gamete with an extra chromosome 21. The karyotype of the affected person is:

    • A. 47 chromosomes, trisomy 21
    • B. 46 chromosomes with XXY
    • C. 45 chromosomes, monosomy 21
    • D. 69 chromosomes (triploid)
  11. Q16. Bacteria grown for many generations in ¹⁵N medium are transferred to ¹⁴N medium. After TWO rounds of replication, the DNA forms two equal bands: one of intermediate density and one light. This result supports:

    • A. Conservative replication
    • B. Semi-conservative replication
    • C. Replication without complementary base pairing
    • D. Dispersive replication
  12. Q17. A mutation changes a codon from UAU (tyrosine) to UAA. What is the likely result?

    • A. There is no change in the protein
    • B. A stop codon forms and a shortened, probably non-functional protein is produced
    • C. The reading frame shifts by one base
    • D. Tyrosine is replaced by another amino acid
  13. Q18. Insertion of a single nucleotide near the start of a gene is usually more harmful than a single base substitution because it:

    • A. Shifts the reading frame and alters every codon after it
    • B. Has no effect on mRNA
    • C. Always creates a start codon
    • D. Changes only one amino acid
  14. Q19. Restriction endonucleases are useful in genetic engineering because they:

    • A. Multiply DNA without cells
    • B. Join DNA fragments together
    • C. Copy RNA into DNA
    • D. Cut DNA at specific recognition sequences, often leaving sticky ends
  15. Q20. Which enzyme is used to seal the sugar–phosphate backbone when a gene is inserted into a plasmid?

    • A. RNA polymerase
    • B. Restriction endonuclease
    • C. Reverse transcriptase
    • D. DNA ligase
  16. Q21. In PCR, the DNA polymerase used (Taq polymerase) is obtained from a thermophilic bacterium because:

    • A. It does not need primers
    • B. It can cut DNA at specific sites
    • C. It works only at low temperatures
    • D. It is not denatured at the 94–95 °C used to separate DNA strands
  17. Q22. Starting with one DNA molecule, how many copies are theoretically present after 5 cycles of PCR?

    • A. 32
    • B. 10
    • C. 64
    • D. 25
  18. Q23. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments move towards the positive electrode, with smaller fragments travelling farther. This is because DNA:

    • A. Is neutral and moves by diffusion
    • B. Is negatively charged due to its phosphate groups and smaller pieces move more easily through the gel
    • C. Is attracted by the agarose
    • D. Is positively charged due to its bases
  19. Q24. Human insulin produced by genetically modified bacteria is preferred over animal insulin because it:

    • A. Is identical to human insulin and less likely to cause immune reactions
    • B. Does not need refrigeration
    • C. Is cheaper to inject
    • D. Works without receptors
  20. Q25. Darwin's theory of natural selection is based on which key observation?

    • A. Species never change over time
    • B. Individuals in a population vary, and those with favourable variations survive and reproduce more
    • C. All offspring survive to reproduce
    • D. Organisms acquire traits during life and pass them on
  21. Q26. Bacteria in a hospital become resistant to an antibiotic after years of use. The best explanation is:

    • A. Bacteria learned to avoid the antibiotic
    • B. The antibiotic caused every bacterium to develop resistance on purpose
    • C. The antibiotic became weaker over time
    • D. Resistant mutants already present survived and reproduced, increasing in frequency
  22. Q27. The forelimbs of a human, a whale and a bat have the same basic bone pattern but different functions. These are:

    • A. Organs showing no evolutionary relationship
    • B. Analogous organs, indicating convergent evolution
    • C. Vestigial organs
    • D. Homologous organs, indicating common ancestry
  23. Q28. Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bird perform the same function but have different structures and origins. They illustrate:

    • A. Convergent evolution producing analogous organs
    • B. Divergent evolution producing homologous organs
    • C. Artificial selection
    • D. Vestigial organs
  24. Q29. In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele is 0.3. What is the expected frequency of heterozygotes?

    • A. 0.09
    • B. 0.21
    • C. 0.42
    • D. 0.49
  25. Q30. Lamarck's explanation that giraffes have long necks differs from Darwin's because Lamarck proposed that:

    • A. Variations arise randomly and are selected
    • B. Only the fittest individuals reproduce
    • C. Characteristics acquired by use during an animal's life are inherited by offspring
    • D. Mutations cause new species to appear suddenly