NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 4)

Take the NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 4): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A transmission electron micrograph shows a mitochondrion measuring 45 mm in length. If its actual length is 15 μm, what is the magnification?

    • A. ×675
    • B. ×3000 ✓
    • C. ×300
    • D. ×30 000

    Answer: B. ×3000

    Explanation: Magnification = image size ÷ actual size = 45 mm ÷ 15 μm = 45 000 μm ÷ 15 μm = 3000.

  2. Q2. A cell measures 3.5 cm across on a photomicrograph printed at ×2000. What is its actual diameter?

    • A. 17.5 μm ✓
    • B. 175 μm
    • C. 1.75 μm
    • D. 70 μm

    Answer: A. 17.5 μm

    Explanation: Actual size = 3.5 cm ÷ 2000 = 35 000 μm ÷ 2000 = 17.5 μm.

  3. Q3. Two cubical cells have sides of 2 μm and 4 μm. Which statement about their surface-area-to-volume (SA:V) ratios is correct?

    • A. The 2 μm cell has SA:V = 12 and the 4 μm cell has 24
    • B. The 2 μm cell has SA:V = 3 and the 4 μm cell has 1.5 ✓
    • C. The 2 μm cell has SA:V = 1.5 and the 4 μm cell has 3
    • D. Both have SA:V = 6

    Answer: B. The 2 μm cell has SA:V = 3 and the 4 μm cell has 1.5

    Explanation: For a cube SA:V = 6a²/a³ = 6/a: 6/2 = 3 and 6/4 = 1.5. Larger cells have lower SA:V, limiting exchange.

  4. Q4. Potato cylinders are weighed, soaked in sucrose solutions for an hour and reweighed. Mass change: 0.0 M = +12%; 0.2 M = +6%; 0.4 M = −6%; 0.6 M = −12%. Assuming a straight-line trend, the sucrose concentration isotonic to the potato cells is about

    • A. 0.4 M
    • B. 0.5 M
    • C. 0.2 M
    • D. 0.3 M ✓

    Answer: D. 0.3 M

    Explanation: Zero mass change lies midway between +6% (0.2 M) and −6% (0.4 M), i.e. 0.3 M, where there is no net water movement.

  5. Q5. A plant cell has solute potential −0.9 MPa and pressure potential +0.5 MPa. It is placed in a solution of water potential −0.6 MPa. What happens?

    • A. Net water movement out of the cell, because the cell's water potential is −0.4 MPa ✓
    • B. Net water movement into the cell, because −0.9 is lower than −0.6
    • C. Net water movement out of the cell, because pressure potential is positive
    • D. No net movement, because the potentials cancel

    Answer: A. Net water movement out of the cell, because the cell's water potential is −0.4 MPa

    Explanation: Ψcell = Ψs + Ψp = −0.9 + 0.5 = −0.4 MPa, which is higher (less negative) than −0.6 MPa, so water moves down the gradient out of the cell. Using Ψs alone is the common trap.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. A plant cell at incipient plasmolysis is placed in a solution and no net water movement occurs. Which of the following must be true of the cell?

    • A. Its water potential is zero
    • B. Its solute potential is zero
    • C. Its pressure potential equals its solute potential in magnitude
    • D. Its pressure potential is zero, so its water potential equals its solute potential
  2. Q7. Cholesterol is removed from the plasma membrane of cultured cells and they are warmed from 20 °C to 40 °C. Compared with normal cells, the membrane will be

    • A. more fluid and less stable at 40 °C, because cholesterol normally restrains phospholipid movement at higher temperature
    • B. less fluid at 40 °C, because cholesterol normally loosens the packing of phospholipid tails at high temperature
    • C. unchanged at 40 °C, because membrane fluidity depends only on the membrane proteins and not on lipids
    • D. rigid at 40 °C, because without cholesterol the saturated tails pack tightly together as temperature rises
  3. Q8. A Na⁺/K⁺ pump of a nerve cell uses 30 ATP molecules. How many ions are moved, and what is the net charge change inside the cell?

    • A. 90 Na⁺ out and 60 K⁺ in; the inside becomes more negative by 30 charges
    • B. 60 Na⁺ out and 90 K⁺ in; the inside becomes more positive
    • C. 90 Na⁺ in and 60 K⁺ out; the inside becomes more negative
    • D. 30 Na⁺ out and 30 K⁺ in; there is no net charge change
  4. Q9. A pulse of radioactive amino acids is given to pancreatic cells and followed with unlabelled amino acids. Which sequence shows where labelled insulin precursor is found over time?

    • A. Golgi → rough ER → lysosomes → membrane
    • B. Rough ER → transport vesicles → Golgi → secretory vesicles
    • C. Free ribosomes → nucleus → Golgi → secretory vesicles
    • D. Smooth ER → mitochondria → Golgi → membrane
  5. Q10. A child lacks one lysosomal hydrolase and substrate builds up inside cells, enlarging them. This type of disease arises because

    • A. ribosomes cannot make any protein
    • B. the substrate cannot be broken down in lysosomes and accumulates
    • C. the Golgi cannot make lysosomal membrane
    • D. mitochondria fail to produce ATP for the pump
  6. Q11. Catalase in peroxisomes converts H₂O₂ to water and oxygen (2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂). If 34 g of H₂O₂ is completely decomposed, what mass of O₂ is released? (H = 1, O = 16)

    • A. 8 g
    • B. 16 g
    • C. 34 g
    • D. 32 g
  7. Q12. Two cell types are compared: type X has abundant mitochondria with densely packed cristae; type Y has few mitochondria with sparse cristae. Which is the most reasonable inference?

    • A. Y carries out more photosynthesis
    • B. Y has a higher ATP demand because cristae reduce surface area
    • C. X is a prokaryote, because cristae are found only in bacteria
    • D. X has a higher ATP demand, since cristae increase the area for the electron transport chain
  8. Q13. Liver homogenate is centrifuged at low speed and the pellet is examined first. Which structures are most likely in this first pellet?

    • A. Ribosomes
    • B. Mitochondria
    • C. Lysosomes
    • D. Nuclei and unbroken cells
  9. Q14. Streptomycin binds bacterial 70S ribosomes. Why can it still cause side effects in humans?

    • A. Human ribosomes lack rRNA
    • B. Human mitochondria contain 70S-type ribosomes that can be affected
    • C. Human cytosolic ribosomes are also 70S
    • D. Streptomycin enters the nucleus and blocks DNA replication
  10. Q15. Which statement about ribosomal subunits is correct?

    • A. Eukaryotic 80S ribosomes consist of 60S and 40S subunits, which do not sum arithmetically to 80
    • B. Prokaryotic 70S ribosomes consist of 40S and 30S subunits
    • C. Eukaryotic ribosomes are 70S and consist of 50S and 30S subunits
    • D. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S and are bounded by a membrane
  11. Q16. A drug prevents actin filaments from assembling. Dividing cells treated with it complete mitosis but become binucleate. Which process is blocked?

    • A. Nuclear envelope reformation
    • B. Chromosome separation, because spindle microtubules fail
    • C. Cytokinesis, because the contractile ring of actin cannot form
    • D. DNA replication in S phase
  12. Q17. In cross-section, an electron micrograph shows a cylinder with 9 outer pairs of microtubules and 2 central single microtubules. This structure is

    • A. a motile cilium or flagellum (9 + 2)
    • B. a centriole (9 + 0 triplets)
    • C. a nuclear pore complex
    • D. a basal body of a bacterium
  13. Q18. A patient's cells cannot take up LDL cholesterol from blood, leaving blood cholesterol high. This is most directly a defect in

    • A. exocytosis of insulin
    • B. simple diffusion through the bilayer
    • C. phagocytosis of bacteria
    • D. receptor-mediated endocytosis
  14. Q19. The rate of uptake of a nutrient by cells increases with concentration and then levels off. Adding cyanide (which blocks ATP production) stops uptake completely. The transport is

    • A. simple diffusion
    • B. active transport using carrier proteins
    • C. osmosis
    • D. facilitated diffusion
  15. Q20. A fruit softens and its cells separate easily when calcium pectate in its tissue is broken down. Which structure is being degraded?

    • A. Middle lamella
    • B. Primary cell wall cellulose microfibrils
    • C. Tonoplast
    • D. Plasmodesmata
  16. Q21. Cardiac muscle cells contract almost simultaneously because ions pass directly from one cell to the next. Which junction mainly supports this?

    • A. Desmosomes only
    • B. Gap junctions
    • C. Tight junctions
    • D. Plasmodesmata
  17. Q22. Carrot roots are orange although they are underground. Which plastid gives the colour?

    • A. Chromoplast containing carotenoids
    • B. Chloroplast containing chlorophyll
    • C. Elaioplast containing proteins
    • D. Amyloplast containing starch
  18. Q23. A plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution and its central vacuole shrinks. Which membrane surrounds the vacuole and controls this water movement?

    • A. Thylakoid membrane
    • B. Plasmalemma
    • C. Tonoplast
    • D. Outer nuclear membrane
  19. Q24. Cells of one tissue show a very large nucleolus and abundant free ribosomes, and the tissue is growing fast. Which activity is emphasised?

    • A. Breakdown of worn-out organelles and cell debris by lysosomal enzymes
    • B. Synthesis of lipids and steroids by smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    • C. Packaging and modification of proteins for secretion in the Golgi
    • D. Synthesis of rRNA and assembly of ribosomes for protein synthesis
  20. Q25. Viruses are acellular, so they fall outside the cell theory. Which statement of the theory do they fail to fit because they are not made of cells?

    • A. That cells contain genetic material, since viruses carry DNA or RNA outside of any cell
    • B. That cells arise only from pre-existing cells, since viruses replicate by assembly rather than by division
    • C. That all living things are composed of cells, since viruses are acellular
    • D. That the cell is the basic unit of heredity, since viruses pass on genes without any cell division
  21. Q26. A light microscope has a resolving power of about 0.2 μm. Which structure pair could both be resolved? (ribosome ≈ 25 nm, mitochondrion ≈ 1000 nm wide, plasma membrane ≈ 8 nm thick, nucleus ≈ 5000 nm)

    • A. Plasma membrane and nucleus
    • B. Ribosome and plasma membrane
    • C. Mitochondrion and nucleus
    • D. Ribosome and mitochondrion
  22. Q27. Cells in a tissue section show abundant smooth ER and mitochondria with tubular cristae, and the cells secrete lipid-soluble hormones. The tissue is most likely

    • A. goblet cells
    • B. pancreatic acinar tissue
    • C. plasma cells
    • D. adrenal cortex
  23. Q28. The acrosome of a sperm, which contains hydrolytic enzymes, is derived from which organelle?

    • A. Centriole
    • B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    • C. Peroxisome
    • D. Golgi apparatus
  24. Q29. A protein is made on free ribosomes and remains in the cytosol, whereas a similar protein is made on the rough ER. Which feature most directly decides this?

    • A. Number of mitochondria in the cell, which supplies the energy for ER targeting
    • B. Presence of an N-terminal signal sequence that directs the ribosome to the ER
    • C. Size of the ribosomal subunits, since large subunits attach only to the ER
    • D. Presence of a nucleolus, which assigns each ribosome to the cytosol or the ER
  25. Q30. Which observation is the strongest support for the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria?

    • A. They are present in all prokaryotes
    • B. They contain circular DNA and 70S ribosomes and divide by binary fission
    • C. They synthesise all their own proteins without nuclear genes
    • D. They contain a double membrane made only of proteins