NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 3)

Take the NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 3): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A cell has a diameter of 20 µm under a microscope. If the eyepiece is 10× and the objective 40×, how large is the image of the cell (in mm)?

    • A. 8 ✓
    • B. 80
    • C. 0.8
    • D. 4

    Answer: A. 8

    Explanation: Magnification = 400; 20 µm × 400 = 8000 µm = 8 mm.

  2. Q2. A student measures a mitochondrion as 5 mm long in a photomicrograph taken at ×10 000. Its actual length is:

    • A. 50 µm
    • B. 5 µm
    • C. 0.05 µm
    • D. 0.5 µm ✓

    Answer: D. 0.5 µm

    Explanation: Actual = 5 mm ÷ 10 000 = 0.0005 mm = 0.5 µm.

  3. Q3. Which feature gives the transmission electron microscope higher resolution than the light microscope?

    • A. It uses a brighter lamp
    • B. Glass lenses magnify more
    • C. Electrons have a much shorter wavelength than visible light ✓
    • D. Specimens are viewed alive

    Answer: C. Electrons have a much shorter wavelength than visible light

    Explanation: Resolution depends on wavelength; electron beams have wavelengths far shorter than light.

  4. Q4. A scanning electron microscope is preferred over a TEM when a researcher wants to:

    • A. observe living cells in water
    • B. view internal organelle membranes in thin sections
    • C. see the surface three-dimensional topography of a specimen ✓
    • D. measure DNA sequence

    Answer: C. see the surface three-dimensional topography of a specimen

    Explanation: SEM scans electrons across the surface and gives 3-D surface images; TEM passes electrons through thin sections.

  5. Q5. During differential centrifugation of a liver homogenate, which organelle fraction pellets FIRST at low speed?

    • A. Nuclei ✓
    • B. Ribosomes
    • C. Lysosomes
    • D. Mitochondria

    Answer: A. Nuclei

    Explanation: The largest, densest components (nuclei and unbroken cells) sediment first; smaller particles need higher speeds.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Phospholipid molecules in a bilayer freely move sideways but rarely 'flip-flop' between layers. This is because:

    • A. membranes are rigid solids
    • B. tails are covalently bonded across the layers
    • C. the polar head would have to cross the hydrophobic core
    • D. cholesterol blocks every sideways movement
  2. Q7. At low temperature, cholesterol in the animal cell membrane:

    • A. is lost from the membrane
    • B. makes the membrane more rigid by tight packing
    • C. prevents phospholipid tails from packing too closely, keeping the membrane fluid
    • D. dissolves the bilayer
  3. Q8. Which membrane component functions mainly in cell-cell recognition?

    • A. Glycoproteins and glycolipids
    • B. Cytoskeleton filaments
    • C. Phospholipid tails
    • D. Cholesterol
  4. Q9. Red blood cells placed in distilled water swell and burst. Which term best describes the process?

    • A. Crenation due to solute entering
    • B. Haemolysis due to water entering by osmosis
    • C. Plasmolysis due to water leaving
    • D. Facilitated diffusion of salts out
  5. Q10. A plant cell has a solute potential of −0.8 MPa and a pressure potential of +0.3 MPa. Its water potential is:

    • A. −1.1 MPa
    • B. +1.1 MPa
    • C. −0.5 MPa
    • D. +0.5 MPa
  6. Q11. Water will move from cell X (Ψw = −0.6 MPa) to cell Y (Ψw = −0.9 MPa) because:

    • A. pressure potential is always zero
    • B. water moves to higher water potential
    • C. water moves to the region of lower (more negative) water potential
    • D. solutes move from Y to X
  7. Q12. In a hypertonic solution a plant cell shows plasmolysis. What fills the space between the shrunken protoplast and the cell wall?

    • A. Air
    • B. Cytoplasm
    • C. The external solution
    • D. Pure water
  8. Q13. Glucose enters a red blood cell through a carrier protein down its concentration gradient without ATP. This is:

    • A. simple diffusion through the bilayer
    • B. facilitated diffusion
    • C. endocytosis
    • D. active transport
  9. Q14. The sodium–potassium pump moves ions per cycle as follows:

    • A. 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in using one ATP
    • B. 1 Na⁺ out and 1 K⁺ in using two ATP
    • C. 2 Na⁺ out and 3 K⁺ in using one ATP
    • D. 3 Na⁺ in and 2 K⁺ out without ATP
  10. Q15. Cholera toxin and other ligands often enter cells by receptor-mediated endocytosis. The coated pits are lined by the protein:

    • A. collagen
    • B. clathrin
    • C. tubulin
    • D. actin
  11. Q16. A white blood cell engulfs a bacterium. After the phagosome forms, it fuses with:

    • A. the rough ER
    • B. the nucleus
    • C. a peroxisome only
    • D. a lysosome
  12. Q17. In Tay-Sachs disease, a lysosomal enzyme is missing and a lipid accumulates in neurons. This shows that lysosomes normally:

    • A. synthesise the lipids of the membrane
    • B. store calcium ions only
    • C. digest macromolecules such as lipids into reusable units
    • D. produce ATP for neurons
  13. Q18. A cell actively secreting large amounts of protein, such as a pancreatic acinar cell, would be expected to have well-developed:

    • A. centrioles only
    • B. rough ER and Golgi apparatus
    • C. peroxisomes only
    • D. smooth ER and chloroplasts
  14. Q19. Liver cells of a person on long-term phenobarbital show proliferation of smooth ER. The probable reason is:

    • A. more ribosome production
    • B. greater DNA replication
    • C. greater detoxification of drugs
    • D. increased protein secretion
  15. Q20. Which sequence correctly shows the pathway of a secretory protein?

    • A. Golgi → rough ER → lysosome
    • B. Nucleus → Golgi → ribosome
    • C. Rough ER → transport vesicle → Golgi → secretory vesicle → membrane
    • D. Smooth ER → nucleus → cell membrane
  16. Q21. Peroxisomes contain catalase because it:

    • A. transcribes mRNA
    • B. synthesises ATP
    • C. breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen
    • D. digests worn organelles
  17. Q22. Cristae of mitochondria increase surface area for:

    • A. glycolysis
    • B. Krebs cycle enzymes in the matrix
    • C. DNA replication
    • D. electron transport chain and ATP synthase
  18. Q23. Mitochondria are thought to have originated from engulfed bacteria. Which feature supports this?

    • A. They contain histone-bound linear DNA
    • B. They contain circular DNA and 70S ribosomes
    • C. They have a single membrane
    • D. They lack ribosomes
  19. Q24. Chromoplasts differ from chloroplasts in that they:

    • A. carry out photosynthesis in thylakoids
    • B. store starch
    • C. contain carotenoid pigments, giving fruit its colour
    • D. contain no membrane
  20. Q25. Which statement about the central vacuole of a mature plant cell is correct?

    • A. It is the site of photosynthesis
    • B. Its tonoplast regulates the movement of solutes and keeps the cell turgid
    • C. It is absent in mature cells
    • D. It is surrounded by a double membrane
  21. Q26. Which component is found in the nucleolus?

    • A. Lysosomal enzymes
    • B. rRNA and proteins forming ribosomal subunits
    • C. Centrioles
    • D. Histone-free DNA only
  22. Q27. Nuclear pores permit all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A. free passage of DNA to the cytoplasm
    • B. export of ribosomal subunits
    • C. export of mRNA
    • D. import of histones
  23. Q28. Microtubules are made of:

    • A. α- and β-tubulin dimers
    • B. keratin
    • C. myosin
    • D. actin monomers
  24. Q29. A drug that stops spindle fibres from forming (such as colchicine) will block cell division at:

    • A. interphase S-phase, because DNA is not copied
    • B. prophase, because DNA cannot condense
    • C. cytokinesis only after telophase
    • D. metaphase, because chromosomes cannot be pulled apart
  25. Q30. The '9 + 2' arrangement of microtubules is characteristic of:

    • A. eukaryotic cilia and flagella
    • B. nuclear pores
    • C. centrioles
    • D. bacterial flagella