NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 2)

Take the NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Which observation was most important in extending the cell theory to state that all cells arise from pre-existing cells?

    • A. Virchow's observation of cells dividing to form new cells ✓
    • B. Hooke's observation of cork cells
    • C. Schleiden's study of plant tissues
    • D. Leeuwenhoek's discovery of bacteria

    Answer: A. Virchow's observation of cells dividing to form new cells

    Explanation: Rudolf Virchow (1855) proposed 'omnis cellula e cellula', based on cell division, which became the third tenet of cell theory.

  2. Q2. A cell measures 30 mm in a photomicrograph taken at a magnification of ×1500. What is its actual size?

    • A. 200 µm
    • B. 45 µm
    • C. 2 µm
    • D. 20 µm ✓

    Answer: D. 20 µm

    Explanation: Actual size = image size ÷ magnification = 30 000 µm ÷ 1500 = 20 µm.

  3. Q3. To study the three-dimensional surface of a pollen grain at high resolution, the most suitable instrument is a:

    • A. Compound light microscope
    • B. Scanning electron microscope ✓
    • C. Transmission electron microscope
    • D. Hand lens

    Answer: B. Scanning electron microscope

    Explanation: The SEM scans a beam across a metal-coated surface and gives detailed 3-D surface images; the TEM shows internal sections.

  4. Q4. A liver homogenate is centrifuged at increasing speeds. Which organelle will sediment first (at the lowest speed)?

    • A. Nuclei ✓
    • B. Ribosomes
    • C. Fragments of ER (microsomes)
    • D. Mitochondria

    Answer: A. Nuclei

    Explanation: In differential centrifugation the largest, densest structures pellet first: nuclei, then mitochondria/lysosomes, then microsomes, then ribosomes.

  5. Q5. Fish living in very cold water have cell membranes rich in unsaturated fatty acids. This adaptation:

    • A. Prevents osmosis completely
    • B. Reduces the number of membrane proteins
    • C. Keeps the membrane fluid at low temperature ✓
    • D. Makes the membrane rigid to resist freezing

    Answer: C. Keeps the membrane fluid at low temperature

    Explanation: Kinks at C=C double bonds stop phospholipid tails packing tightly, so the membrane stays fluid when cold.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. Which type of molecule crosses a pure phospholipid bilayer most easily by simple diffusion?

    • A. Oxygen
    • B. Amino acids
    • C. Sodium ions
    • D. Glucose
  2. Q7. Water moves rapidly into kidney collecting-duct cells through specific membrane proteins. These channel proteins are called:

    • A. Porins of the outer mitochondrial membrane
    • B. Glycoproteins
    • C. Integrins
    • D. Aquaporins
  3. Q8. Potato cylinders are placed in sucrose solutions of different concentrations. They neither gain nor lose mass in 0.3 M sucrose. In 0.5 M sucrose the cylinders will:

    • A. Lose mass because water leaves by osmosis
    • B. Stay the same because the cell wall prevents change
    • C. Gain mass because sucrose enters freely
    • D. Gain mass because water enters by osmosis
  4. Q9. Cell P has a water potential of −400 kPa and the adjacent cell Q has −700 kPa. Which statement is correct?

    • A. Water moves from P to Q
    • B. Water moves from Q to P only if Q is turgid
    • C. Water moves from Q to P
    • D. There is no net movement of water
  5. Q10. Cells lining the gut take in droplets of extracellular fluid in small vesicles. This non-specific uptake of liquid is called:

    • A. Phagocytosis
    • B. Pinocytosis
    • C. Facilitated diffusion
    • D. Exocytosis
  6. Q11. Cholesterol enters cells when LDL particles bind specific surface proteins clustered in coated pits. In familial hypercholesterolaemia these proteins are defective. The process affected is:

    • A. Active transport by the Na⁺/K⁺ pump
    • B. Exocytosis
    • C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
    • D. Simple diffusion
  7. Q12. Muscle cells have a highly specialised smooth ER called the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Its main function is to:

    • A. Synthesise digestive enzymes
    • B. Produce ATP
    • C. Store and release calcium ions
    • D. Package proteins into lysosomes
  8. Q13. Cells of the adrenal cortex and testes, which secrete steroid hormones, are rich in:

    • A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    • B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    • C. Glyoxysomes
    • D. Centrioles
  9. Q14. The face of the Golgi apparatus that receives vesicles from the ER is called the:

    • A. Cristae
    • B. Trans (maturing) face
    • C. Thylakoid face
    • D. Cis (forming) face
  10. Q15. During metamorphosis, a tadpole's tail is gradually absorbed. The organelles most directly responsible for digesting the tail cells are:

    • A. Peroxisomes
    • B. Ribosomes
    • C. Chloroplasts
    • D. Lysosomes
  11. Q16. Lysosomal enzymes work best at an acidic pH of about 5. This is an advantage because:

    • A. Acid pH makes them synthesise ATP
    • B. They can then digest the cell wall
    • C. They are then able to replicate DNA
    • D. If they leak into the neutral cytosol they become much less active
  12. Q17. Peroxisomes in liver cells contain catalase. Its role is to:

    • A. Synthesise proteins
    • B. Convert fats into sugars
    • C. Pump protons for ATP synthesis
    • D. Break down toxic hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen
  13. Q18. Germinating castor seeds convert stored fat into sugar. The organelle containing the glyoxylate-cycle enzymes for this is the:

    • A. Golgi body
    • B. Glyoxysome
    • C. Lysosome
    • D. Amyloplast
  14. Q19. Mitochondria contain their own DNA and 70S ribosomes. In humans, mitochondrial DNA is inherited:

    • A. Almost entirely from the mother
    • B. Only from the father
    • C. Equally from both parents
    • D. Only by sons
  15. Q20. Cells of potato tubers store starch in colourless plastids called:

    • A. Amyloplasts
    • B. Chromoplasts
    • C. Chloroplasts
    • D. Elaioplasts
  16. Q21. As a tomato ripens from green to red, its chloroplasts change into:

    • A. Mitochondria
    • B. Leucoplasts
    • C. Amyloplasts
    • D. Chromoplasts
  17. Q22. Freshwater protists such as Amoeba have contractile vacuoles. Their function is to:

    • A. Store starch
    • B. Digest food particles
    • C. Produce ATP
    • D. Expel excess water entering by osmosis
  18. Q23. Large molecules such as mRNA leave the nucleus through:

    • A. The nucleolus
    • B. Centrioles
    • C. Plasmodesmata
    • D. Nuclear pores
  19. Q24. During which stage of the cell cycle are chromosomes most condensed and best seen for counting under a microscope?

    • A. Interphase
    • B. Telophase
    • C. G1 phase
    • D. Metaphase
  20. Q25. An antibiotic binds 70S ribosomes and blocks protein synthesis in bacteria without killing human cells. Which side effect in human cells is still possible?

    • A. Breakdown of cell-wall peptidoglycan
    • B. Reduced protein synthesis inside mitochondria
    • C. Damage to the nuclear envelope
    • D. Blocked glycolysis in the cytosol
  21. Q26. Which structure is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

    • A. Nuclear envelope
    • B. Ribosomes
    • C. Mitochondria
    • D. Endoplasmic reticulum
  22. Q27. Intermediate filaments, such as keratin filaments in skin cells, mainly function to:

    • A. Move chromosomes to the poles
    • B. Produce cytoplasmic streaming
    • C. Form the mitotic spindle
    • D. Provide mechanical strength and resist tension
  23. Q28. In cross-section, the axoneme of a eukaryotic cilium shows microtubules arranged as:

    • A. Nine triplets with no central tubules
    • B. A single central microtubule
    • C. Nine outer doublets around two central singlets
    • D. Two outer doublets around nine central singlets
  24. Q29. People with a defect in the dynein arms of cilia often suffer from repeated chest infections and male infertility. The best explanation is that:

    • A. Cilia in the airways and sperm flagella cannot beat properly
    • B. Antibody production is blocked
    • C. Sperm cells have no nucleus
    • D. The lungs lack surfactant
  25. Q30. A cube-shaped cell of side 2 µm grows to a side of 4 µm. Its surface area to volume ratio changes from:

    • A. 6 : 1 to 3 : 1
    • B. 1.5 : 1 to 0.75 : 1
    • C. 3 : 1 to 1.5 : 1
    • D. 3 : 1 to 6 : 1