NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 1)

Take the NUMS Biology — Cell Structure and Function (Set 1): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A cell from a pancreatic acinus secretes large amounts of digestive enzymes. Which organelles would you expect to be especially abundant in it?

    • A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes
    • B. Centrioles and cilia
    • C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus ✓
    • D. Chloroplasts and peroxisomes

    Answer: C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

    Explanation: Secreted proteins are made on RER ribosomes and packaged/modified by the Golgi before exocytosis.

  2. Q2. Liver cells of a person who regularly takes sedative drugs show an enlarged network of membranes without ribosomes. This organelle helps by:

    • A. Producing ATP by oxidative phosphorylation
    • B. Detoxifying drugs through enzymes of the smooth ER ✓
    • C. Synthesising digestive enzymes on its surface
    • D. Packaging hydrolytic enzymes into lysosomes

    Answer: B. Detoxifying drugs through enzymes of the smooth ER

    Explanation: Smooth ER contains detoxifying enzymes (e.g. cytochrome P450) and proliferates in response to repeated drug exposure.

  3. Q3. A researcher argues that mitochondria were once free-living bacteria engulfed by an ancestral cell. Which finding would best support this claim?

    • A. They contain circular DNA and 70S ribosomes similar to bacteria ✓
    • B. They are synthesised entirely by the Golgi apparatus
    • C. They are surrounded by a single membrane
    • D. They lack any genetic material of their own

    Answer: A. They contain circular DNA and 70S ribosomes similar to bacteria

    Explanation: Mitochondria have their own circular DNA, 70S ribosomes, double membranes and divide by binary fission, like bacteria.

  4. Q4. In Tay-Sachs disease, lipids accumulate in nerve cells because a hydrolytic enzyme is missing. Which organelle is defective?

    • A. Centriole
    • B. Ribosome
    • C. Nucleolus
    • D. Lysosome ✓

    Answer: D. Lysosome

    Explanation: Tay-Sachs is a lysosomal storage disorder: lack of a lysosomal enzyme (hexosaminidase A) causes gangliosides to build up.

  5. Q5. A cell is treated with a drug that destroys the nucleolus. Which process will be affected first?

    • A. Formation of the nuclear envelope
    • B. Assembly of ribosomal subunits ✓
    • C. DNA replication
    • D. Breakdown of fatty acids

    Answer: B. Assembly of ribosomal subunits

    Explanation: The nucleolus synthesises rRNA and assembles ribosomal subunits, so protein synthesis capacity falls.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Which feature is found in prokaryotic cells but NOT in eukaryotic animal cells?

    • A. Membrane-bound nucleus
    • B. Peptidoglycan cell wall
    • C. Mitochondria
    • D. 80S ribosomes in the cytoplasm
  2. Q7. According to the fluid mosaic model, the 'mosaic' part refers to:

    • A. Carbohydrates attached to the cytoskeleton
    • B. Lateral movement of phospholipids
    • C. Cholesterol making the membrane rigid
    • D. Proteins scattered within and across the phospholipid bilayer
  3. Q8. Cholesterol in animal cell membranes helps to:

    • A. Provide the main source of membrane energy
    • B. Bind antigens on the outer surface
    • C. Regulate membrane fluidity over a range of temperatures
    • D. Act as a channel for glucose transport
  4. Q9. Red blood cells placed in a solution swell and burst. The external solution was:

    • A. A concentrated salt solution
    • B. Isotonic to the cytoplasm
    • C. Hypertonic to the cytoplasm
    • D. Hypotonic to the cytoplasm
  5. Q10. A plant cell placed in concentrated sucrose solution shows the protoplast pulled away from the cell wall. The space between wall and membrane is filled with:

    • A. Air
    • B. The external sucrose solution
    • C. Pure water from the vacuole
    • D. Cytoplasm
  6. Q11. Glucose enters a cell down its concentration gradient through a carrier protein without using ATP. This is:

    • A. Pinocytosis
    • B. Active transport
    • C. Facilitated diffusion
    • D. Simple diffusion through the bilayer
  7. Q12. The sodium–potassium pump is described as electrogenic because it:

    • A. Moves equal numbers of Na⁺ and K⁺ in opposite directions
    • B. Uses light energy to move ions
    • C. Moves 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in per ATP, creating a net charge difference
    • D. Carries ions down their concentration gradients
  8. Q13. White blood cells engulf bacteria by extending pseudopodia around them. This process is:

    • A. Phagocytosis
    • B. Pinocytosis
    • C. Facilitated diffusion
    • D. Exocytosis
  9. Q14. Which statement about the Golgi apparatus is correct?

    • A. It synthesises proteins on attached ribosomes
    • B. Vesicles from ER fuse with its cis face, and secretory vesicles bud from its trans face
    • C. It is the site of the Krebs cycle
    • D. It is absent from secretory cells
  10. Q15. A protein labelled with a radioactive amino acid is tracked in a secretory cell. The correct order in which the label appears is:

    • A. Nucleus → smooth ER → mitochondria → membrane
    • B. Golgi apparatus → rough ER → lysosome → nucleus
    • C. Rough ER → Golgi apparatus → secretory vesicles → cell membrane
    • D. Cell membrane → Golgi → rough ER → vesicles
  11. Q16. Which cytoskeletal element forms the spindle fibres during cell division and the core of cilia?

    • A. Intermediate filaments
    • B. Microfilaments
    • C. Microtubules
    • D. Collagen fibres
  12. Q17. Muscle contraction and cytoplasmic streaming depend mainly on which cytoskeletal protein?

    • A. Spectrin
    • B. Keratin
    • C. Tubulin
    • D. Actin
  13. Q18. In plant cells, peroxisomes and glyoxysomes are similar because both:

    • A. Are produced by the nucleolus
    • B. Have double membranes and their own DNA
    • C. Are single-membrane microbodies containing oxidative enzymes
    • D. Contain chlorophyll
  14. Q19. A cell with a high surface area to volume ratio will:

    • A. Need a larger nucleus
    • B. Lose water more slowly
    • C. Have fewer membrane proteins per unit volume
    • D. Exchange materials with its surroundings more efficiently
  15. Q20. Which pair correctly matches the organelle with its double-membrane property?

    • A. Ribosome and centriole — both double-membrane bound
    • B. Lysosome and vacuole — both double-membrane bound
    • C. Golgi and ER — both double-membrane bound
    • D. Nucleus and chloroplast — both double-membrane bound
  16. Q21. The cristae of mitochondria increase:

    • A. The surface area for electron transport chain proteins and ATP synthase
    • B. The volume of matrix for glycolysis
    • C. The storage of starch
    • D. The number of ribosomes
  17. Q22. Electron microscopes give more detailed images than light microscopes mainly because electrons:

    • A. Travel more slowly than light
    • B. Can be used to view living cells
    • C. Produce coloured images
    • D. Have a much shorter wavelength, giving higher resolution
  18. Q23. Which component would be absent in a mature mammalian red blood cell?

    • A. Haemoglobin
    • B. Carbonic anhydrase
    • C. Nucleus
    • D. Plasma membrane
  19. Q24. Plasmodesmata in plant cells are functionally similar to which junctions in animal cells?

    • A. Gap junctions
    • B. Synaptic clefts
    • C. Tight junctions
    • D. Desmosomes
  20. Q25. The middle lamella between two adjacent plant cells is composed mainly of:

    • A. Cellulose microfibrils
    • B. Calcium and magnesium pectates
    • C. Chitin
    • D. Lignin and suberin
  21. Q26. Which statement about ribosomes is correct?

    • A. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S with 50S and 30S subunits
    • B. Ribosomes are found only attached to the ER
    • C. Eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are 80S, made of 60S and 40S subunits
    • D. Ribosomes are surrounded by a single membrane
  22. Q27. A cell actively accumulates iodide ions to a concentration 30 times higher than in blood. Poisoning the cell with cyanide would:

    • A. Make the cell burst immediately
    • B. Increase iodide uptake by diffusion
    • C. Have no effect since uptake is passive
    • D. Stop iodide accumulation because ATP production stops
  23. Q28. Centrioles are absent in the cells of most higher plants. Which statement is therefore correct?

    • A. Higher plant cells can still form a spindle without centrioles
    • B. Spindles in plants are made of actin
    • C. Higher plant cells cannot divide by mitosis
    • D. Higher plant cells divide only by amitosis
  24. Q29. Chromatin condensed into darkly staining, transcriptionally inactive regions is called:

    • A. Euchromatin
    • B. Nucleolus
    • C. Heterochromatin
    • D. Nucleoplasm
  25. Q30. Which molecules on the outer surface of the cell membrane are mainly involved in cell recognition?

    • A. Cholesterol molecules
    • B. Peripheral proteins on the inner side
    • C. Phospholipid tails
    • D. Glycoproteins and glycolipids