NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Biological Molecules and Enzymes (Set 2)

Take the NUMS Biology — Biological Molecules and Enzymes (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A polysaccharide sample gives a blue-black colour with iodine and, on complete hydrolysis, yields only glucose. Microscopy shows unbranched helical chains. The sample is most likely:

    • A. Chitin
    • B. Cellulose
    • C. Amylose ✓
    • D. Amylopectin

    Answer: C. Amylose

    Explanation: Amylose is an unbranched α(1→4) glucose polymer that coils into a helix and traps iodine to give a blue-black colour; amylopectin is branched, cellulose does not form a helix, and chitin contains N-acetylglucosamine.

  2. Q2. A linear polymer contains 500 glucose residues joined by glycosidic bonds. How many water molecules are released when it is synthesised from free glucose?

    • A. 250
    • B. 499 ✓
    • C. 501
    • D. 500

    Answer: B. 499

    Explanation: Each glycosidic bond formed by condensation releases one water molecule; a linear chain of n monomers has n − 1 bonds, so 500 − 1 = 499.

  3. Q3. Sucrose does not give a positive Benedict's test, whereas maltose does. The best explanation is that in sucrose:

    • A. Glucose is present in the β form only
    • B. The glycosidic bond is a peptide bond
    • C. There are three monosaccharide units
    • D. The reducing groups of both glucose and fructose are used in the glycosidic bond ✓

    Answer: D. The reducing groups of both glucose and fructose are used in the glycosidic bond

    Explanation: Sucrose's α1→β2 linkage involves the anomeric carbons of both glucose and fructose, so no free reducing group remains; maltose keeps one free anomeric carbon.

  4. Q4. Insects and fungi both contain a structural polysaccharide that resembles cellulose but has a nitrogen-containing group on each monomer. This polysaccharide is:

    • A. Chitin ✓
    • B. Glycogen
    • C. Pectin
    • D. Hemicellulose

    Answer: A. Chitin

    Explanation: Chitin is a β(1→4) polymer of N-acetylglucosamine, found in arthropod exoskeletons and fungal cell walls.

  5. Q5. Saponification of a fat with sodium hydroxide produces soap and which other product?

    • A. Glucose
    • B. Cholesterol
    • C. Amino acids
    • D. Glycerol ✓

    Answer: D. Glycerol

    Explanation: Alkaline hydrolysis breaks the ester bonds of a triglyceride, giving sodium salts of fatty acids (soap) and glycerol.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Per gram, fats release about twice as much energy as carbohydrates on oxidation. The main reason is that fats:

    • A. Contain more phosphate groups
    • B. Are oxidised anaerobically
    • C. Contain a higher proportion of C–H bonds and less oxygen
    • D. Are stored in larger cells
  2. Q7. Which molecule is a steroid that serves as the precursor of sex hormones and vitamin D in humans?

    • A. Prostaglandin
    • B. Cholesterol
    • C. Lecithin
    • D. Triolein
  3. Q8. Waxes on the leaves of desert plants mainly help by:

    • A. Storing energy for winter
    • B. Absorbing light for photosynthesis
    • C. Speeding up gas exchange
    • D. Reducing water loss through the cuticle
  4. Q9. A tripeptide is formed from three different amino acids. How many peptide bonds and how many free terminal amino groups does it have?

    • A. 3 peptide bonds and 0 free terminal amino groups
    • B. 2 peptide bonds and 1 free terminal amino group
    • C. 2 peptide bonds and 3 free terminal amino groups
    • D. 3 peptide bonds and 1 free terminal amino group
  5. Q10. The number of different tripeptides that can be made using the 20 standard amino acids (repetition allowed) is:

    • A. 1140
    • B. 400
    • C. 60
    • D. 8000
  6. Q11. Keratin in hair and collagen in tendons are fibrous proteins. Compared with globular proteins like enzymes, fibrous proteins are generally:

    • A. Soluble and catalytic
    • B. Lacking secondary structure
    • C. Made of nucleotides
    • D. Insoluble in water and mainly structural
  7. Q12. In a globular protein dissolved in water, amino acids with non-polar R groups such as leucine and valine are usually found:

    • A. Spread evenly on the surface
    • B. Only at the N-terminal end
    • C. Bonded to water by hydrogen bonds
    • D. Buried in the interior, away from water
  8. Q13. Which bond can be broken by a reducing agent such as mercaptoethanol and is formed between two cysteine residues?

    • A. Peptide bond
    • B. Glycosidic bond
    • C. Disulphide bridge
    • D. Phosphodiester bond
  9. Q14. A nucleotide consists of:

    • A. A pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base only
    • B. A pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
    • C. An amino acid, a sugar and a phosphate group
    • D. A hexose sugar, a base and a phosphate group
  10. Q15. A double-stranded DNA fragment has 200 base pairs, of which 60 are A–T pairs. How many hydrogen bonds hold the two strands together?

    • A. 600
    • B. 400
    • C. 460
    • D. 540
  11. Q16. A DNA sample with a high proportion of G–C pairs needs a higher temperature to separate its strands because G–C pairs:

    • A. Are joined by covalent bonds
    • B. Contain deoxyribose instead of ribose
    • C. Are joined by three hydrogen bonds instead of two
    • D. Are always found at the ends of the molecule
  12. Q17. Which statement about the two strands of a DNA double helix is correct?

    • A. Purines pair with purines to keep a constant width
    • B. They are joined by phosphodiester bonds between bases
    • C. They run antiparallel, one 5′→3′ and the other 3′→5′
    • D. They are identical in base sequence
  13. Q18. Sweating cools the body effectively because water has a high:

    • A. Surface tension
    • B. Latent heat of vaporisation
    • C. Viscosity
    • D. Density
  14. Q19. A pond freezes on its surface in winter while fish survive below. This is possible because:

    • A. Water has a low specific heat capacity
    • B. Ice is less dense than liquid water and insulates the water beneath
    • C. Fish produce heat by photosynthesis
    • D. Ice is denser than water and sinks
  15. Q20. An enzyme lowers the activation energy of a reaction. Which quantity does it NOT change?

    • A. The overall free-energy change (ΔG) of the reaction
    • B. The rate of the reaction
    • C. The time taken to reach equilibrium
    • D. The energy of the transition state
  16. Q21. Enzyme X has a Km of 2 mM and enzyme Y has a Km of 10 mM for the same substrate. Which conclusion is correct?

    • A. Both enzymes have equal affinity
    • B. Enzyme X always has a higher Vmax
    • C. Enzyme X has a higher affinity for the substrate
    • D. Enzyme Y has a higher affinity for the substrate
  17. Q22. Methanol poisoning is treated by giving ethanol, which competes for the active site of alcohol dehydrogenase. The ethanol works because:

    • A. It binds an allosteric site and raises enzyme activity
    • B. It reacts directly with methanol to form water
    • C. It destroys the enzyme permanently
    • D. It occupies the active site, so less methanol is converted to toxic formaldehyde
  18. Q23. On a graph of rate against substrate concentration, a competitive inhibitor causes:

    • A. A lower Vmax but the same Km
    • B. A lower Vmax and lower Km
    • C. A higher Vmax and lower Km
    • D. The same Vmax but a higher apparent Km
  19. Q24. Salivary amylase is active in the mouth but stops working in the stomach. The most likely reason is:

    • A. The low pH of the stomach denatures it
    • B. There is no starch in the stomach
    • C. Pepsin activates amylase into a protease
    • D. The stomach is too cold
  20. Q25. An enzyme solution is kept at 0 °C for an hour and then warmed to 37 °C; it works normally. A second sample is kept at 80 °C and then cooled to 37 °C; it does not work. This shows that:

    • A. The enzyme's optimum temperature is 0 °C
    • B. Both low and high temperatures denature enzymes permanently
    • C. High temperature only lowers kinetic energy
    • D. Low temperature inactivates enzymes reversibly, while high temperature denatures them irreversibly
  21. Q26. An enzyme converts glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate by rearranging atoms within the molecule. It belongs to the class:

    • A. Transferases
    • B. Ligases
    • C. Hydrolases
    • D. Isomerases
  22. Q27. The non-protein part of an enzyme that is tightly and permanently bound to it, such as the haem group of catalase, is called a:

    • A. Substrate
    • B. Coenzyme
    • C. Apoenzyme
    • D. Prosthetic group
  23. Q28. Which property of enzymes allows a very small amount to process a large amount of substrate?

    • A. They are made of lipids
    • B. They raise the activation energy
    • C. They are not used up in the reaction
    • D. They are destroyed after one reaction
  24. Q29. An allosteric activator increases enzyme activity by:

    • A. Breaking the enzyme into smaller subunits
    • B. Binding to a site other than the active site and changing the active site's shape
    • C. Supplying extra substrate to the enzyme
    • D. Binding to the active site in place of the substrate
  25. Q30. A food sample turns violet when sodium hydroxide and a few drops of dilute copper sulphate are added. The sample contains:

    • A. Reducing sugar
    • B. Lipid
    • C. Protein
    • D. Starch