NUMS — Medical & Dental Entry Test

NUMS Biology — Biodiversity: Viruses, Bacteria and Kingdoms (Set 2)

Take the NUMS Biology — Biodiversity: Viruses, Bacteria and Kingdoms (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A scientist names a newly found plant 'Mangifera indica'. In this binomial name, 'indica' is the:

    • A. Genus name
    • B. Order name
    • C. Family name
    • D. Specific epithet ✓

    Answer: D. Specific epithet

    Explanation: In binomial nomenclature the first word (capitalised) is the genus and the second (lower case) is the specific epithet; together they name the species.

  2. Q2. Which rank contains the greatest number of organisms sharing the fewest common characteristics?

    • A. Genus
    • B. Family
    • C. Kingdom ✓
    • D. Species

    Answer: C. Kingdom

    Explanation: Higher ranks are broader: a kingdom includes many phyla and therefore the most diverse organisms.

  3. Q3. Carl Woese's three-domain system separated prokaryotes into Bacteria and Archaea mainly on the basis of differences in:

    • A. Cell shape
    • B. Mode of nutrition
    • C. Ribosomal RNA sequences and membrane lipids ✓
    • D. Presence of flagella

    Answer: C. Ribosomal RNA sequences and membrane lipids

    Explanation: Comparison of 16S rRNA sequences and unique ether-linked membrane lipids showed Archaea are as distinct from Bacteria as from eukaryotes.

  4. Q4. Two organisms are placed in the same genus. Which pair of ranks must they also share?

    • A. Family and order ✓
    • B. Only kingdom
    • C. Species and family
    • D. Species and order

    Answer: A. Family and order

    Explanation: Each genus belongs to one family, which belongs to one order; so members of one genus share all higher ranks, but not necessarily the species.

  5. Q5. A student argues that viruses should be treated as cells. Which fact best counters this argument?

    • A. They have 70S ribosomes
    • B. They divide by binary fission
    • C. They can make ATP independently
    • D. They contain either DNA or RNA but not both ✓

    Answer: D. They contain either DNA or RNA but not both

    Explanation: A virion has a single type of nucleic acid in a protein coat and relies on host ribosomes and energy for replication.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. Tobacco mosaic virus has a helical capsid, while adenovirus has an icosahedral capsid. The capsid in each case is built from repeating protein units called:

    • A. Peplomers
    • B. Prophages
    • C. Capsomeres
    • D. Nucleoids
  2. Q7. Influenza virus changes its surface haemagglutinin slightly every few years, so a new vaccine is needed. This is mainly because:

    • A. It is a bacterium that becomes resistant
    • B. Vaccines destroy the host's memory cells
    • C. Its RNA genome mutates frequently and RNA replication lacks proofreading
    • D. It has no nucleic acid
  3. Q8. The first virus to be crystallised, showing that viruses can behave like chemical substances outside cells, was:

    • A. Tobacco mosaic virus (by Stanley)
    • B. Bacteriophage T4 (by Twort)
    • C. Smallpox virus (by Jenner)
    • D. Polio virus (by Salk)
  4. Q9. AZT, a drug used against HIV, is a nucleoside analogue that blocks the viral enzyme which copies RNA into DNA. This enzyme is:

    • A. DNA ligase
    • B. Restriction endonuclease
    • C. Reverse transcriptase
    • D. RNA polymerase II
  5. Q10. HIV enters helper T cells because its envelope glycoprotein gp120 binds to the host-cell surface molecule:

    • A. Acetylcholine receptor
    • B. CD4
    • C. Insulin receptor
    • D. Haemoglobin
  6. Q11. In the lytic cycle of phage T4, the step immediately after synthesis of phage DNA and proteins inside the bacterium is:

    • A. Attachment to the cell wall
    • B. Assembly of new phage particles
    • C. Integration into the bacterial chromosome
    • D. Injection of DNA
  7. Q12. Polio virus mainly damages which cells, which can lead to paralysis?

    • A. Cells of the alveoli
    • B. Red blood cells
    • C. Motor neurons of the spinal cord
    • D. Liver cells
  8. Q13. Which disease is caused by a virus spread through Aedes mosquito bites?

    • A. Malaria
    • B. Cholera
    • C. Dengue fever
    • D. Typhoid
  9. Q14. A rod-shaped bacterium is described as a 'bacillus', while a comma-shaped one is a:

    • A. Coccus
    • B. Spirillum
    • C. Streptococcus
    • D. Vibrio
  10. Q15. Gram-negative bacteria lose the crystal violet during the alcohol wash in the Gram stain. This is because:

    • A. Their peptidoglycan layer is very thick
    • B. They lack a cell wall entirely
    • C. Their thin peptidoglycan layer and lipid-rich outer membrane do not retain the dye complex
    • D. They have no cell membrane
  11. Q16. The bacterial cell wall is made mainly of:

    • A. Cellulose
    • B. Pectin
    • C. Chitin
    • D. Peptidoglycan (murein)
  12. Q17. Bacteria reproduce asexually mainly by:

    • A. Meiosis
    • B. Mitosis
    • C. Spore fusion
    • D. Binary fission
  13. Q18. A bacterial population starts with 500 cells and doubles every 30 minutes. How many cells are present after 3 hours (assuming no deaths)?

    • A. 16 000
    • B. 3 000
    • C. 64 000
    • D. 32 000
  14. Q19. In a closed culture, the phase in which the number of new cells equals the number of dying cells is the:

    • A. Lag phase
    • B. Decline phase
    • C. Stationary phase
    • D. Log phase
  15. Q20. A virus carries a gene from one bacterium to another, giving the second bacterium a new trait. This process is:

    • A. Transduction
    • B. Transformation
    • C. Binary fission
    • D. Conjugation
  16. Q21. Genes for antibiotic resistance often spread quickly between different bacterial species in a hospital. The structures most often carrying these genes are:

    • A. Capsules
    • B. Endospores
    • C. Mesosomes
    • D. Plasmids
  17. Q22. Bacteria such as Nitrosomonas obtain energy by oxidising ammonia and use it to fix CO₂. They are described as:

    • A. Chemoautotrophs
    • B. Saprotrophs
    • C. Photoautotrophs
    • D. Parasites
  18. Q23. Which bacterium is used to convert milk into yoghurt?

    • A. Lactobacillus
    • B. Rhizobium
    • C. Salmonella
    • D. Clostridium
  19. Q24. Leguminous plants grown in nitrogen-poor soil still produce protein-rich seeds. This is due to:

    • A. Nitrifying bacteria converting nitrate to N₂
    • B. Rhizobium in root nodules fixing atmospheric N₂ into ammonia
    • C. Denitrifying bacteria adding nitrates
    • D. Fungi in the roots fixing CO₂
  20. Q25. Plasmodium, the cause of malaria, belongs to the group of protozoa that:

    • A. Move using flagella
    • B. Move using cilia
    • C. Move by pseudopodia
    • D. Are non-motile parasites forming spores (sporozoans)
  21. Q26. Diatoms, which form a large part of marine phytoplankton, are notable for:

    • A. Cell walls made of chitin
    • B. Lacking chlorophyll
    • C. Moving by pseudopodia
    • D. Cell walls (frustules) made of silica
  22. Q27. The cell walls of fungi are made mainly of chitin, and their storage carbohydrate is:

    • A. Cellulose
    • B. Glycogen
    • C. Sucrose
    • D. Starch
  23. Q28. Penicillium is used commercially to produce penicillin. Which feature of fungi makes them suitable for large-scale fermentation?

    • A. Ability to photosynthesise
    • B. Their need for living host tissue
    • C. Rapid growth on cheap organic media and release of products into the medium
    • D. Cell walls made of cellulose
  24. Q29. Yeast used in baking is a unicellular fungus that reproduces asexually mainly by:

    • A. Conjugation
    • B. Budding
    • C. Fragmentation of hyphae only
    • D. Binary fission
  25. Q30. Viroids, which cause diseases such as potato spindle tuber disease, consist of:

    • A. Short circular RNA without a protein coat
    • B. Protein only
    • C. DNA enclosed in a lipid envelope
    • D. RNA with a protein capsid