ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Physics — Physical Optics and Thermodynamics (Set 4)

Take the ECAT Physics — Physical Optics and Thermodynamics (Set 4): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. In a double-slit experiment λ = 600 nm, slit separation 0.30 mm and screen distance 1.5 m in air. If the whole apparatus is immersed in water (n = 4/3), the fringe width becomes

    • A. 2.25 mm ✓
    • B. 3.0 mm
    • C. 1.69 mm
    • D. 4.0 mm

    Answer: A. 2.25 mm

    Explanation: In air β = λD/d = 3.0 mm. In water λ' = λ/n, so β' = 3.0/(4/3) = 2.25 mm.

  2. Q2. In a double-slit experiment (λ = 600 nm) a thin transparent sheet of refractive index 1.5 and thickness 6 μm is placed over one slit. The central fringe shifts by

    • A. 15 fringe widths
    • B. 3 fringe widths
    • C. 5 fringe widths ✓
    • D. 10 fringe widths

    Answer: C. 5 fringe widths

    Explanation: Extra optical path = (n − 1)t = 0.5 × 6 μm = 3 μm = 5λ, so the pattern shifts by 5 fringes.

  3. Q3. In a double-slit experiment the fringe width is 2 mm. The distance from the central maximum to the third dark fringe is

    • A. 3 mm
    • B. 6 mm
    • C. 7 mm
    • D. 5 mm ✓

    Answer: D. 5 mm

    Explanation: Dark fringes lie at (m + ½)β for m = 0, 1, 2…. The third dark fringe has m = 2: 2.5 × 2 = 5 mm.

  4. Q4. Two coherent sources have intensity ratio 9 : 1. The ratio of the maximum to the minimum intensity in their interference pattern is

    • A. 3 : 1
    • B. 4 : 1 ✓
    • C. 16 : 1
    • D. 9 : 1

    Answer: B. 4 : 1

    Explanation: Amplitudes are in ratio 3 : 1. I_max/I_min = (3 + 1)²/(3 − 1)² = 16/4 = 4.

  5. Q5. A non-reflecting coating of refractive index 1.25 is applied to glass of index 1.5 for light of wavelength 550 nm (in air). The minimum coating thickness is

    • A. 110 nm ✓
    • B. 55 nm
    • C. 137.5 nm
    • D. 220 nm

    Answer: A. 110 nm

    Explanation: Both reflections occur at denser media, so destructive interference needs 2nt = λ/2, i.e. t = λ/4n = 550/(4 × 1.25) = 110 nm.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. A diffraction grating has 5000 lines per cm. For light of wavelength 590 nm the highest order of maximum that can be observed is

    • A. 4
    • B. 5
    • C. 3
    • D. 2
  2. Q7. Light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a grating with 5000 lines per cm. The angle of the second-order maximum is

    • A. 45°
    • B. 30°
    • C. 15°
    • D. 60°
  3. Q8. Light of wavelength 500 nm passes through a single slit 0.10 mm wide, and the pattern is seen on a screen 2.0 m away. The width of the central maximum is

    • A. 0.5 cm
    • B. 4.0 cm
    • C. 1.0 cm
    • D. 2.0 cm
  4. Q9. Unpolarized light of intensity I₀ passes through three ideal polarizers whose axes are at 0°, 45° and 90° to the first. The emerging intensity is

    • A. I₀/4
    • B. I₀/8
    • C. 0
    • D. I₀/2
  5. Q10. Light is completely plane polarized on reflection from glass of refractive index √3. The angle of incidence is

    • A. 60°
    • B. 45°
    • C. 73°
    • D. 30°
  6. Q11. X-rays of wavelength 0.10 nm are Bragg-reflected from crystal planes 0.28 nm apart. The highest order of reflection possible is

    • A. 2
    • B. 6
    • C. 3
    • D. 5
  7. Q12. A movable mirror of a Michelson interferometer is displaced and 400 fringes cross the field of view. If λ = 600 nm, the displacement of the mirror is

    • A. 0.12 mm
    • B. 0.24 mm
    • C. 0.06 mm
    • D. 0.40 mm
  8. Q13. In a Newton's rings experiment, the ratio of the diameter of the 25th dark ring to that of the 4th dark ring is

    • A. 25 : 4
    • B. 5 : 2
    • C. 5 : 4
    • D. 25 : 16
  9. Q14. Light of wavelength 600 nm in air enters glass of refractive index 1.5. In the glass, its wavelength and frequency are

    • A. 600 nm, frequency reduced to 1/1.5
    • B. 400 nm, unchanged frequency
    • C. 400 nm, frequency increased by 1.5 times
    • D. 900 nm, unchanged frequency
  10. Q15. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas are heated at constant pressure from 300 K to 400 K. Taking R = 8.3 J/mol K, the heat absorbed is

    • A. 2490 J
    • B. 6640 J
    • C. 1660 J
    • D. 4150 J
  11. Q16. A gas undergoes a cycle represented on a P–V diagram by a right triangle: P rises at constant volume from 100 kPa to 300 kPa (at V = 3 L), then the gas returns along a straight line to (1 L, 100 kPa), and finally along a constant-pressure line to (3 L, 100 kPa). The net work per cycle has magnitude

    • A. 400 J
    • B. 600 J
    • C. 200 J
    • D. 300 J
  12. Q17. A monatomic ideal gas at 300 K is compressed adiabatically to one-eighth of its original volume. The final temperature is

    • A. 600 K
    • B. 900 K
    • C. 1200 K
    • D. 2400 K
  13. Q18. The rms speed of the molecules of an ideal gas at 27 °C is v. At what Celsius temperature will the rms speed be 2v?

    • A. 1200 °C
    • B. 600 °C
    • C. 54 °C
    • D. 927 °C
  14. Q19. Two moles of a diatomic ideal gas at 400 K have all translational and rotational modes active (vibration frozen). Taking R = 8.3 J/mol K, the internal energy is

    • A. 6.64 kJ
    • B. 16.6 kJ
    • C. 23.2 kJ
    • D. 9.96 kJ
  15. Q20. A monatomic ideal gas expands at constant pressure. The fraction of the heat supplied that is converted into external work is

    • A. 1/3
    • B. 2/3
    • C. 3/5
    • D. 2/5
  16. Q21. A 2 L vessel contains gas at 3 atm and is connected through a tap to a 4 L vessel containing the same gas at 6 atm, at the same temperature. After the tap is opened, the pressure is

    • A. 4 atm
    • B. 5 atm
    • C. 3.5 atm
    • D. 4.5 atm
  17. Q22. A Carnot engine has its sink at 300 K and an efficiency of 25%. To double the efficiency, with the sink unchanged, the source temperature must be raised to

    • A. 600 K
    • B. 800 K
    • C. 500 K
    • D. 450 K
  18. Q23. A Carnot refrigerator works between a freezer at 270 K and a room at 300 K. For 200 J of work input, the heat extracted from the freezer is

    • A. 2000 J
    • B. 1800 J
    • C. 200 J
    • D. 2200 J
  19. Q24. A heat engine absorbs 2000 J from the hot reservoir and rejects 1500 J to the cold reservoir in each cycle, completing 10 cycles per second. Its power output is

    • A. 500 W
    • B. 5 kW
    • C. 20 kW
    • D. 15 kW
  20. Q25. A quantity 600 J of heat flows by conduction from a large body at 400 K to a large body at 300 K. The net change in entropy of the two bodies is

    • A. −0.5 J/K
    • B. 0
    • C. +3.5 J/K
    • D. +0.5 J/K
  21. Q26. Which of the following would violate the second law of thermodynamics?

    • A. A refrigerator that needs electrical work to cool
    • B. A cyclic engine that turns heat from one reservoir entirely into work
    • C. Heat flowing from a hot body to a cold body
    • D. A single isothermal expansion that turns absorbed heat into work
  22. Q27. 1 g of hydrogen gas (H₂, M = 2 g/mol) and 1 g of helium gas (He, M = 4 g/mol) are at the same temperature. The ratio of their total translational kinetic energies is

    • A. 2 : 1
    • B. 1 : 2
    • C. 1 : 1
    • D. 4 : 1
  23. Q28. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K expands isothermally to twice its volume (R = 8.3 J/mol K, ln2 = 0.69). The work done by the gas is about

    • A. 3.4 kJ
    • B. 2.5 kJ
    • C. 1.7 kJ
    • D. 0.83 kJ
  24. Q29. The molar specific heat of an ideal gas during an isothermal process is

    • A. equal to C_p
    • B. infinite
    • C. zero
    • D. equal to C_v
  25. Q30. Two coherent sources of equal intensity I emit light of wavelength 500 nm. At a point P the path difference from the sources is 1.25 μm. The intensity at P is

    • A. 2I
    • B. 4I
    • C. I
    • D. zero