ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Physics — Physical Optics and Thermodynamics (Set 3)

Take the ECAT Physics — Physical Optics and Thermodynamics (Set 3): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, light of wavelength 600 nm falls on slits 0.3 mm apart and the screen is 1.5 m away. The fringe spacing is

    • A. 0.3 mm
    • B. 1.5 mm
    • C. 6 mm
    • D. 3 mm ✓

    Answer: D. 3 mm

    Explanation: Δy = λD/d = 600×10⁻⁹ × 1.5/(0.3×10⁻³) = 3 mm.

  2. Q2. If the whole Young’s double-slit apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3, the fringe spacing

    • A. increases to 4/3 of its value
    • B. decreases to 3/4 of its value ✓
    • C. becomes zero
    • D. is unchanged

    Answer: B. decreases to 3/4 of its value

    Explanation: λ in water = λ/n, so Δy = λD/(nd) falls by the factor 3/4.

  3. Q3. Which of the following pairs of sources can produce a sustained interference pattern?

    • A. Two separate sodium lamps
    • B. Two coherent sources with a constant phase difference ✓
    • C. Two bulbs driven by separate supplies
    • D. Two torches of the same colour

    Answer: B. Two coherent sources with a constant phase difference

    Explanation: A stable pattern needs a constant phase relation; independent sources have randomly changing phases.

  4. Q4. At a point on the screen the path difference between two interfering beams of wavelength 500 nm is 1250 nm. The point is

    • A. half-bright
    • B. a bright fringe
    • C. a dark fringe ✓
    • D. the central maximum

    Answer: C. a dark fringe

    Explanation: Path difference/λ = 2.5, a half-integer multiple, so the waves cancel.

  5. Q5. A thin film of refractive index 1.5 on glass of higher index is to be non-reflecting for light of wavelength 600 nm in air at normal incidence. The minimum thickness is

    • A. 100 nm ✓
    • B. 400 nm
    • C. 200 nm
    • D. 150 nm

    Answer: A. 100 nm

    Explanation: With phase changes at both surfaces, the condition is 2nt = λ/2, so t = λ/4n = 600/6 = 100 nm.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. In a Michelson interferometer, a mirror is moved by 0.1 mm and 400 fringes cross the field of view. The wavelength of the light is

    • A. 500 nm
    • B. 400 nm
    • C. 250 nm
    • D. 1000 nm
  2. Q7. A diffraction grating has 5000 lines per cm. Light of wavelength 500 nm falls normally on it. The angle of the first-order maximum satisfies

    • A. sinθ = 0.5
    • B. sinθ = 0.1
    • C. sinθ = 0.025
    • D. sinθ = 0.25
  3. Q8. A grating has d = 2 μm and is illuminated by light of wavelength 600 nm. The highest order of maximum observed is

    • A. 5
    • B. 4
    • C. 2
    • D. 3
  4. Q9. For single-slit diffraction of width 0.2 mm with light of wavelength 500 nm, the first minimum occurs where sinθ equals

    • A. 2.5 × 10⁻⁴
    • B. 2.5 × 10⁻³
    • C. 5 × 10⁻³
    • D. 1.25 × 10⁻³
  5. Q10. When light passes through a polaroid and then a second polaroid whose axis is at 60° to the first, the fraction of the (polarized) intensity transmitted by the second is

    • A. 1/4
    • B. 3/4
    • C. 1/8
    • D. 1/2
  6. Q11. Polarization of light confirms that light waves are

    • A. stationary
    • B. particles only
    • C. longitudinal
    • D. transverse
  7. Q12. In X-ray diffraction, X-rays of wavelength 0.2 nm reflect from planes 0.2 nm apart. The first-order Bragg angle is

    • A. 60°
    • B. 45°
    • C. 90°
    • D. 30°
  8. Q13. Two moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally at 300 K to twice their volume. The heat absorbed is approximately (R = 8.31 J/mol K)

    • A. 6000 J
    • B. 4990 J
    • C. 1730 J
    • D. 3460 J
  9. Q14. A gas at constant pressure 2 × 10⁵ Pa expands from 0.01 m³ to 0.03 m³. The work done by the gas is

    • A. 400 J
    • B. 4000 J
    • C. 6000 J
    • D. 2000 J
  10. Q15. A gas is compressed so that 300 J of work is done on it, while 120 J of heat flows out to the surroundings. The change in its internal energy is

    • A. +420 J
    • B. −180 J
    • C. −420 J
    • D. +180 J
  11. Q16. In an adiabatic compression of an ideal gas, the temperature of the gas

    • A. stays constant, because Q = 0 throughout
    • B. rises, because work done on the gas increases its internal energy
    • C. falls, because no heat enters the gas
    • D. rises, because heat flows in from the surroundings
  12. Q17. Ideal gas at 300 K and 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa is heated at constant volume to 450 K. Its new pressure is

    • A. 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa
    • B. 2.7 × 10⁵ Pa
    • C. 0.8 × 10⁵ Pa
    • D. 1.8 × 10⁵ Pa
  13. Q18. The root-mean-square speed of gas molecules is doubled when the absolute temperature is

    • A. increased by a factor of 2√2
    • B. doubled
    • C. halved
    • D. increased by a factor of 4
  14. Q19. The average translational kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas at 300 K is (k = 1.38 × 10⁻²³ J/K)

    • A. 1.2 × 10⁻²⁰ J
    • B. 6.2 × 10⁻²¹ J
    • C. 3.1 × 10⁻²¹ J
    • D. 4.1 × 10⁻²¹ J
  15. Q20. For a monatomic ideal gas, the ratio of the molar specific heats C_p/C_v is

    • A. 3/2
    • B. 5/3
    • C. 4/3
    • D. 7/5
  16. Q21. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas are heated at constant volume, raising the temperature by 20 K. The heat required is (R = 8.3 J/mol K)

    • A. 498 J
    • B. 332 J
    • C. 1245 J
    • D. 830 J
  17. Q22. A Carnot engine operates between 600 K and 300 K. If it absorbs 1200 J per cycle, the work output per cycle is

    • A. 300 J
    • B. 900 J
    • C. 600 J
    • D. 1200 J
  18. Q23. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 40% with its cold reservoir at 300 K. The hot reservoir temperature is

    • A. 700 K
    • B. 420 K
    • C. 500 K
    • D. 750 K
  19. Q24. A heat engine takes 800 J from a hot source and rejects 600 J to a cold sink. Its efficiency is

    • A. 12.5%
    • B. 75%
    • C. 33%
    • D. 25%
  20. Q25. When 1000 J of heat flows reversibly into a body at a constant temperature of 250 K, its entropy change is

    • A. 4 J/K
    • B. 250 J/K
    • C. 0.25 J/K
    • D. −4 J/K
  21. Q26. Which statement about a refrigerator is consistent with the second law of thermodynamics?

    • A. Its coefficient of performance can be infinite
    • B. It converts all absorbed heat into work
    • C. It needs work input to move heat from a cold to a hot region
    • D. It moves heat from cold to hot with no work input
  22. Q27. Ice melting into water at 0 °C is accompanied by

    • A. no change in entropy
    • B. an increase in entropy
    • C. a decrease in entropy
    • D. a fall in temperature of the system
  23. Q28. Huygens’ principle states that every point on a wavefront

    • A. acts as a source of secondary wavelets that spread forward with the wave speed
    • B. moves at twice the speed of the wavefront
    • C. emits only light of the same colour backward
    • D. absorbs the wavelets from neighbouring points
  24. Q29. In Newton’s rings viewed in reflected light, the centre of the pattern is

    • A. bright
    • B. coloured
    • C. dark
    • D. blurred
  25. Q30. A reversible process in an ideal gas has an isothermal and an adiabatic curve through the same point on a P–V graph. The adiabatic curve is steeper because

    • A. the work done is always smaller in an adiabatic process
    • B. no heat flows in an isothermal process, so its pressure stays low
    • C. adiabatic curves always have a slope of −1 on a P–V graph
    • D. a falling volume also raises the temperature, so pressure rises faster