ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Physics — Physical Optics and Thermodynamics (Set 1)

Take the ECAT Physics — Physical Optics and Thermodynamics (Set 1): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. In Young's double-slit experiment, light of wavelength 600 nm is used with slits 0.5 mm apart and a screen 1 m away. What is the fringe spacing?

    • A. 0.6 mm
    • B. 0.3 mm
    • C. 1.2 mm ✓
    • D. 2.4 mm

    Answer: C. 1.2 mm

    Explanation: Δy = λL/d = (600 × 10⁻⁹ × 1)/(0.5 × 10⁻³) = 0.001 m = 1.2 mm.

  2. Q2. In Young's double-slit experiment, if the separation between the slits is doubled (all else unchanged), the fringe spacing:

    • A. is unchanged
    • B. is halved ✓
    • C. is doubled
    • D. becomes four times

    Answer: B. is halved

    Explanation: Δy = λL/d, so Δy ∝ 1/d.

  3. Q3. For constructive interference of light from two coherent sources in phase, the path difference must be:

    • A. zero only
    • B. an odd multiple of λ/4
    • C. an integral multiple of λ ✓
    • D. an odd multiple of λ/2

    Answer: C. an integral multiple of λ

    Explanation: Bright fringes occur where path difference = mλ (m = 0, 1, 2, …); dark fringes at (m + ½)λ.

  4. Q4. The central spot of Newton's rings seen in reflected light is dark because:

    • A. reflection from the glass plate introduces an extra phase change of π ✓
    • B. the air film is thickest at the centre
    • C. no light reaches the centre
    • D. the lens absorbs light at the centre

    Answer: A. reflection from the glass plate introduces an extra phase change of π

    Explanation: At the contact point the film thickness is zero, but one reflection (from the denser medium) adds a λ/2 path change, giving destructive interference.

  5. Q5. A diffraction grating has 5000 lines per cm. Light of wavelength 500 nm falls normally on it. At what angle is the second-order maximum observed?

    • A. 14.5°
    • B. 30° ✓
    • C. 60°
    • D. 45°

    Answer: B. 30°

    Explanation: d = 1/5000 cm = 2 × 10⁻⁶ m; sin θ = 2λ/d = 2 × 500 × 10⁻⁹/(2 × 10⁻⁶) = 0.5, so θ = 30°.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. A diffraction grating gives the first-order maximum of 500 nm light at 30°. How many lines per centimetre does the grating have?

    • A. 20000 lines/cm
    • B. 10000 lines/cm
    • C. 5000 lines/cm
    • D. 2500 lines/cm
  2. Q7. Which phenomenon shows that light waves are transverse?

    • A. Reflection
    • B. Diffraction
    • C. Polarization
    • D. Interference
  3. Q8. In a Michelson interferometer using light of wavelength 600 nm, the movable mirror is displaced by 0.15 mm. How many fringes cross the field of view?

    • A. 500
    • B. 250
    • C. 1000
    • D. 2500
  4. Q9. X-rays are diffracted by crystal planes 0.2 nm apart. The first-order Bragg reflection occurs at a glancing angle of 30°. What is the X-ray wavelength?

    • A. 0.4 nm
    • B. 0.2 nm
    • C. 0.35 nm
    • D. 0.1 nm
  5. Q10. Light of wavelength 600 nm falls on a single slit of width 1.2 μm. At what angle from the centre does the first minimum occur?

    • A. 30°
    • B. 60°
    • C. 45°
    • D. 15°
  6. Q11. Two light sources are said to be coherent if they have:

    • A. the same amplitude but different frequencies
    • B. a randomly changing phase difference
    • C. the same intensity only
    • D. the same frequency and a constant phase difference
  7. Q12. Huygens' principle states that:

    • A. every point on a wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets
    • B. the angle of incidence equals the angle of refraction
    • C. light consists of particles called photons
    • D. light travels in straight lines only
  8. Q13. Thin soap films show bright colours in white light mainly because of:

    • A. dispersion of light by the soap
    • B. polarization of the reflected light
    • C. total internal reflection in the film
    • D. interference between light reflected from the two surfaces of the film
  9. Q14. A cylinder of gas is given 800 J of heat while it pushes a piston outward, doing 300 J of work. By how much does the internal energy of the gas change?

    • A. +300 J
    • B. +500 J
    • C. −500 J
    • D. +1100 J
  10. Q15. For an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, which statement is correct?

    • A. No heat is exchanged with the surroundings
    • B. The heat absorbed equals the work done by the gas
    • C. The internal energy of the gas increases
    • D. The work done by the gas is zero
  11. Q16. When an ideal gas expands adiabatically:

    • A. its temperature stays constant
    • B. its internal energy increases
    • C. its temperature rises because heat is absorbed
    • D. its temperature falls because work is done at the expense of internal energy
  12. Q17. A Carnot engine works between a source at 527 °C and a sink at 127 °C. What is its efficiency?

    • A. 24%
    • B. 50%
    • C. 40%
    • D. 76%
  13. Q18. A Carnot engine with its sink at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. What is the temperature of its source?

    • A. 500 K
    • B. 180 K
    • C. 420 K
    • D. 750 K
  14. Q19. For an ideal gas, the difference between the molar specific heats at constant pressure and constant volume is:

    • A. R
    • B. γR
    • C. 3R/2
    • D. zero
  15. Q20. A gas expands at a constant pressure of 2 × 10⁵ Pa and its volume increases by 3 litres. How much work does it do?

    • A. 600 J
    • B. 6 × 10⁵ J
    • C. 60 J
    • D. 1500 J
  16. Q21. If the absolute temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, the root-mean-square speed of its molecules becomes:

    • A. √2 times
    • B. 1/√2 times
    • C. 4 times
    • D. 2 times
  17. Q22. At the same temperature, what is the ratio of the r.m.s. speed of hydrogen molecules (M = 2) to that of oxygen molecules (M = 32)?

    • A. 8 : 1
    • B. 4 : 1
    • C. 16 : 1
    • D. 1 : 4
  18. Q23. A gas has density 1.2 kg/m³ and its molecules have an r.m.s. speed of 500 m/s. What pressure does it exert?

    • A. 2 × 10⁵ Pa
    • B. 1 × 10⁵ Pa
    • C. 3 × 10⁵ Pa
    • D. 600 Pa
  19. Q24. 1 kg of ice at 0 °C melts to water at 0 °C. Taking the latent heat of fusion as 3.36 × 10⁵ J/kg, what is the change in entropy?

    • A. 336 J/K
    • B. 1.23 J/K
    • C. 1231 J/K
    • D. 9.17 × 10⁷ J/K
  20. Q25. Which is a statement of the second law of thermodynamics (Kelvin's form)?

    • A. Heat flows spontaneously from a cold body to a hot body
    • B. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
    • C. The entropy of an isolated system always decreases
    • D. No engine working in a cycle can convert all the heat absorbed into work
  21. Q26. A gas occupies 2 L at 300 K. It is heated at constant pressure to 450 K. What is its new volume?

    • A. 4.5 L
    • B. 1.33 L
    • C. 2.5 L
    • D. 3 L
  22. Q27. For a gas taken through a complete cycle, the net work done is represented on a P–V diagram by:

    • A. the area enclosed by the cycle
    • B. the slope of the isothermal curve
    • C. the length of the cycle's perimeter
    • D. the area under the highest curve only
  23. Q28. In an isochoric (constant-volume) process:

    • A. the pressure stays constant
    • B. no heat is exchanged
    • C. no work is done and all heat supplied increases the internal energy
    • D. the temperature stays constant
  24. Q29. How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 2 moles of a monatomic ideal gas by 10 K at constant volume? (R = 8.314 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

    • A. 166 J
    • B. 83 J
    • C. 416 J
    • D. 249 J
  25. Q30. A gas at 1 atm occupies 6 L. It is compressed isothermally to 2 L. What is its new pressure?

    • A. ⅓ atm
    • B. 3 atm
    • C. 2 atm
    • D. 12 atm