ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Physics — Electronics, Modern, Atomic and Nuclear Physics (Set 7)

Take the ECAT Physics — Electronics, Modern, Atomic and Nuclear Physics (Set 7): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Taking h = 4.14 × 10⁻¹⁵ eV s, the energy of a photon of frequency 6 × 10¹⁴ Hz is:

    • A. 1.45 eV
    • B. 3.6 eV
    • C. 2.48 eV ✓
    • D. 24.8 eV

    Answer: C. 2.48 eV

    Explanation: E = hf = (4.14 × 10⁻¹⁵)(6 × 10¹⁴) = 2.48 eV.

  2. Q2. Light of photon energy 4.5 eV falls on a metal of work function 2.5 eV. The stopping potential is:

    • A. 1.8 V
    • B. 2.0 V ✓
    • C. 4.5 V
    • D. 7.0 V

    Answer: B. 2.0 V

    Explanation: K_max = hf − φ = 2.0 eV, so V₀ = 2.0 V.

  3. Q3. Taking hc = 1240 eV nm, the threshold wavelength for a metal of work function 2.48 eV is:

    • A. 250 nm
    • B. 1000 nm
    • C. 620 nm
    • D. 500 nm ✓

    Answer: D. 500 nm

    Explanation: λ₀ = hc/φ = 1240/2.48 = 500 nm.

  4. Q4. Taking h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, the momentum of a photon of wavelength 500 nm is:

    • A. 1.33 × 10⁻²⁷ kg m/s ✓
    • B. 4.0 × 10⁻²⁸ kg m/s
    • C. 1.33 × 10⁻²⁵ kg m/s
    • D. 3.3 × 10⁻⁴⁰ kg m/s

    Answer: A. 1.33 × 10⁻²⁷ kg m/s

    Explanation: p = h/λ = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴/(5 × 10⁻⁷) = 1.33 × 10⁻²⁷ kg m/s.

  5. Q5. Taking h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, a 0.1 kg ball moving at 6.63 m/s has a de Broglie wavelength of:

    • A. 10⁻³³ m ✓
    • B. 10⁻³⁵ m
    • C. 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ m
    • D. 10⁻³⁴ m

    Answer: A. 10⁻³³ m

    Explanation: λ = h/mv = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴/(0.1 × 6.63) = 10⁻³³ m, far too small to observe.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. In Compton scattering, the shift in wavelength is Δλ = (h/mc)(1 − cosθ), with h/mc = 2.43 pm. For a photon scattered backwards (θ = 180°), the shift is:

    • A. 4.86 pm
    • B. 2.43 pm
    • C. 1.22 pm
    • D. 0 pm
  2. Q7. With R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹, the shortest wavelength (series limit) of the Balmer series is:

    • A. 91 nm
    • B. 365 nm
    • C. 486 nm
    • D. 656 nm
  3. Q8. Taking the Bohr radius a₀ = 0.053 nm, the radius of the n = 3 orbit of hydrogen is:

    • A. 0.159 nm
    • B. 0.053 nm
    • C. 1.43 nm
    • D. 0.477 nm
  4. Q9. The activity of a radioactive source falls from 800 Bq to 100 Bq in 30 minutes. Its half-life is:

    • A. 10 min
    • B. 15 min
    • C. 30 min
    • D. 7.5 min
  5. Q10. A nuclide has a half-life of 20 s. Taking ln 2 = 0.693, its mean life 1/λ is:

    • A. 13.9 s
    • B. 57.7 s
    • C. 28.9 s
    • D. 20 s
  6. Q11. Taking proton mass 1.0073 u, neutron mass 1.0087 u, ⁴He nuclear mass 4.0015 u and 1 u = 931.5 MeV, the binding energy per nucleon of ⁴He is:

    • A. 7.1 MeV
    • B. 3.6 MeV
    • C. 28.4 MeV
    • D. 14.2 MeV
  7. Q12. A ²³⁸₉₂U nucleus emits one alpha particle and then two beta (β⁻) particles. The resulting nucleus has mass number A and atomic number Z equal to:

    • A. A = 234, Z = 90
    • B. A = 230, Z = 94
    • C. A = 236, Z = 92
    • D. A = 234, Z = 92
  8. Q13. A reactor releases 200 MeV per fission and delivers a thermal power of 640 MW. Taking 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹³ J, the number of fissions per second is:

    • A. 2 × 10¹⁸
    • B. 6.4 × 10¹⁹
    • C. 2 × 10¹⁹
    • D. 3.2 × 10¹⁷
  9. Q14. Taking c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, the energy equivalent of a mass of 1 mg is:

    • A. 3 × 10⁸ J
    • B. 9 × 10⁷ J
    • C. 9 × 10¹³ J
    • D. 9 × 10¹⁰ J
  10. Q15. A spaceship moves at 0.6c relative to Earth. A clock on the ship measures a proper interval of 8 s. The Earth observers measure this interval as:

    • A. 8 s
    • B. 6.4 s
    • C. 10 s
    • D. 13.3 s
  11. Q16. Taking Wien's constant as 2.9 × 10⁻³ m K, a star whose radiation peaks at 500 nm has a surface temperature of about:

    • A. 580 K
    • B. 2900 K
    • C. 5800 K
    • D. 14 500 K
  12. Q17. A black body's absolute temperature is raised from 300 K to 900 K. According to Stefan's law, the power it radiates increases by a factor of:

    • A. 81
    • B. 3
    • C. 9
    • D. 27
  13. Q18. Using Δx Δp ≥ ħ/2 with ħ = 1.05 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, the minimum uncertainty in the momentum of an electron localised to Δx = 0.5 × 10⁻¹⁰ m is:

    • A. 5.25 × 10⁻²⁵ kg m/s
    • B. 2.1 × 10⁻²⁴ kg m/s
    • C. 1.05 × 10⁻⁴⁴ kg m/s
    • D. 1.05 × 10⁻²⁴ kg m/s
  14. Q19. Taking hc = 1240 eV nm, the minimum wavelength in the X-rays from a tube operated at 50 kV is:

    • A. 0.0496 nm
    • B. 0.0248 nm
    • C. 0.248 nm
    • D. 0.0124 nm
  15. Q20. For laser action, population inversion is the condition in which:

    • A. more atoms are in a higher energy level than in a lower one
    • B. all atoms are in the ground state
    • C. atoms emit photons in random directions
    • D. the number of photons absorbed equals the number emitted
  16. Q21. A 3.02 MeV photon produces an electron–positron pair (rest energy 0.51 MeV each). The total kinetic energy shared by the pair is:

    • A. 2.51 MeV
    • B. 2.00 MeV
    • C. 1.51 MeV
    • D. 3.02 MeV
  17. Q22. When germanium is doped with a small amount of gallium (a trivalent impurity), the crystal becomes:

    • A. intrinsic, with equal carriers
    • B. n-type, with electrons as the majority carriers
    • C. p-type, with holes as the majority carriers
    • D. p-type, with electrons as the majority carriers
  18. Q23. A silicon p–n junction diode is reverse biased with a moderate voltage. The small current that still flows is due to:

    • A. minority carriers swept across the junction
    • B. holes moving in the external wire
    • C. electrons breaking through the barrier by tunnelling
    • D. majority carriers crossing the barrier
  19. Q24. A full-wave rectifier is supplied from a 50 Hz AC mains. The fundamental frequency of the ripple in its output is:

    • A. 50 Hz
    • B. 200 Hz
    • C. 100 Hz
    • D. 25 Hz
  20. Q25. A transistor in common-emitter mode has current gain β = 100. With a base current of 30 μA, the emitter current is:

    • A. 3.03 mA
    • B. 0.3 mA
    • C. 3.00 mA
    • D. 30.3 mA
  21. Q26. A NOR gate has its two inputs joined together to form a single input. The gate then behaves as:

    • A. a NAND gate
    • B. an AND gate
    • C. a NOT gate
    • D. an OR gate
  22. Q27. A non-inverting op-amp amplifier has Rf = 90 kΩ and R₁ = 10 kΩ, with gain 1 + Rf/R₁. For an input of 0.15 V the output voltage is:

    • A. 13.5 V
    • B. −1.35 V
    • C. 1.5 V
    • D. 0.15 V
  23. Q28. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs a photon of energy 12.09 eV (energy levels −13.6/n² eV). It is excited to the level:

    • A. n = 3
    • B. n = 5
    • C. n = 2
    • D. n = 4
  24. Q29. Monochromatic light above the threshold frequency falls on a photocell. The light's intensity is doubled while its frequency is unchanged. The saturation current and the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons become, respectively:

    • A. unchanged and doubled
    • B. doubled and unchanged
    • C. unchanged and unchanged
    • D. doubled and doubled
  25. Q30. A laser emits 2 mW at a wavelength of 663 nm. Taking h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s and c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, the number of photons emitted per second is about:

    • A. 6.7 × 10¹⁵
    • B. 3.0 × 10¹⁹
    • C. 2.0 × 10¹⁵
    • D. 6.7 × 10¹²