ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Physics — Electronics, Modern, Atomic and Nuclear Physics (Set 6)

Take the ECAT Physics — Electronics, Modern, Atomic and Nuclear Physics (Set 6): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A metal has a work function of 2.48 eV. Using hc = 1240 eV nm, the longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectric emission from it is

    • A. 500 nm ✓
    • B. 620 nm
    • C. 1240 nm
    • D. 250 nm

    Answer: A. 500 nm

    Explanation: λ₀ = hc/φ = 1240/2.48 = 500 nm.

  2. Q2. In a photoelectric experiment with light above the threshold frequency, the intensity of the light is doubled while its frequency is kept the same. Which statement is correct?

    • A. Both the saturation current and the stopping potential double
    • B. The saturation current is unchanged and the stopping potential doubles
    • C. The saturation current doubles and the stopping potential is unchanged ✓
    • D. The maximum kinetic energy of each electron doubles

    Answer: C. The saturation current doubles and the stopping potential is unchanged

    Explanation: Intensity sets the number of photons (and so of photoelectrons) per second, which doubles the saturation current; each photon's energy hf is unchanged, so the maximum KE and stopping potential are unchanged.

  3. Q3. In Compton scattering the shift in wavelength is Δλ = (h/m_ec)(1 − cosθ), with h/m_ec = 2.43 pm. The largest possible shift in the wavelength of the scattered photon is

    • A. 4.86 pm ✓
    • B. 0 pm
    • C. 1.215 pm
    • D. 2.43 pm

    Answer: A. 4.86 pm

    Explanation: The shift is largest for backscattering (θ = 180°, cosθ = −1): Δλ = 2×2.43 = 4.86 pm.

  4. Q4. An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Take the proton to be 1600 times as massive as the electron. The ratio of the electron's de Broglie wavelength to the proton's is

    • A. 800
    • B. 1600
    • C. 4
    • D. 40 ✓

    Answer: D. 40

    Explanation: λ = h/√(2mK) ∝ 1/√m, so λ_e/λ_p = √1600 = 40.

  5. Q5. A laser beam of power 3.0 W strikes a mirror at normal incidence and is completely reflected (c = 3.0×10⁸ m/s). The force exerted on the mirror is

    • A. 6×10⁻⁸ N
    • B. 1×10⁻⁸ N
    • C. 2×10⁻⁸ N ✓
    • D. 3×10⁻⁸ N

    Answer: C. 2×10⁻⁸ N

    Explanation: Photon momentum flow = P/c = 10⁻⁸ N. Reflection reverses it, doubling the momentum change: F = 2P/c = 2×10⁻⁸ N.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. The energy levels of a hydrogen-like ion of atomic number Z are Eₙ = −13.6Z²/n² eV. The energy of the photon emitted when He⁺ (Z = 2) falls from n = 2 to n = 1 is

    • A. 10.2 eV
    • B. 13.6 eV
    • C. 40.8 eV
    • D. 54.4 eV
  2. Q7. Using a Rydberg constant of 1.0×10⁷ m⁻¹, the wavelength of the first line (n = 4 to n = 3) of the Paschen series of hydrogen is

    • A. 720 nm
    • B. 1000 nm
    • C. 2057 nm
    • D. 1875 nm
  3. Q8. The activity of a radioactive sample falls from 3200 counts per second to 100 counts per second in 40 minutes. Its half-life is

    • A. 5 min
    • B. 8 min
    • C. 10 min
    • D. 20 min
  4. Q9. A radioisotope has a half-life of 10 days. Taking ln 2 = 0.693, its mean life is

    • A. 14.4 days
    • B. 6.93 days
    • C. 20 days
    • D. 10 days
  5. Q10. Samples A and B start with equal numbers of radioactive atoms; their half-lives are 2 h and 4 h respectively. After 8 h the ratio of the activity of A to the activity of B is

    • A. 2
    • B. 0.5
    • C. 4
    • D. 0.25
  6. Q11. The nuclear masses of the proton, neutron and helium-4 nucleus are 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015 u. Taking 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c², the binding energy per nucleon of helium-4 is

    • A. 7.1 MeV
    • B. 3.5 MeV
    • C. 28.4 MeV
    • D. 14.2 MeV
  7. Q12. A reactor produces 100 MW of power from fission, each fission releasing 200 MeV (1 MeV = 1.6×10⁻¹³ J). The number of fissions per second is

    • A. 6.25×10¹⁸
    • B. 3.125×10¹⁸
    • C. 3.1×10¹⁹
    • D. 3.1×10¹⁶
  8. Q13. In the fusion reaction ²H + ³H → ⁴He + n, the nuclear masses are 2.0141 u, 3.0160 u, 4.0026 u and 1.0087 u respectively. With 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c², the energy released is

    • A. 8.8 MeV
    • B. 17.5 MeV
    • C. 1.75 MeV
    • D. 35 MeV
  9. Q14. A gamma-ray photon can create an electron–positron pair (rest energy of each 0.511 MeV). Using hc = 1240 MeV fm, the longest wavelength of a photon able to do this, in femtometres, is

    • A. 606 fm
    • B. 2426 fm
    • C. 2430 fm
    • D. 1213 fm
  10. Q15. Muons have a proper mean lifetime of 2.2 μs. A muon beam moves at 0.80c (c = 3.0×10⁸ m/s). The mean distance travelled before decaying, as measured in the laboratory, is

    • A. 1200 m
    • B. 528 m
    • C. 880 m
    • D. 396 m
  11. Q16. A metre stick moves along its length past an observer, who measures its length as 0.50 m. Its speed, as a fraction of c to two decimal places, is

    • A. 0.75 c
    • B. 0.87 c
    • C. 0.25 c
    • D. 0.5 c
  12. Q17. A particle moves at 0.80c. The ratio of its kinetic energy to its rest energy is

    • A. 0.64
    • B. 0.667
    • C. 1.667
    • D. 0.8
  13. Q18. An electron is confined within 1.0×10⁻¹⁰ m. Using Δx·Δp ≥ ħ/2 with ħ = 1.05×10⁻³⁴ J s, the minimum uncertainty in its momentum is

    • A. 5.25×10⁻²⁵ kg m/s
    • B. 3.15×10⁻²⁵ kg m/s
    • C. 1.05×10⁻²⁴ kg m/s
    • D. 5.25×10⁻²⁴ kg m/s
  14. Q19. An X-ray tube operating at 20 kV has its voltage raised to 50 kV. Using hc = 1240 eV nm, the new minimum (cut-off) wavelength of the X-rays is

    • A. 0.124 nm
    • B. 0.0248 nm
    • C. 0.0155 nm
    • D. 0.062 nm
  15. Q20. A pure silicon crystal is doped with a small amount of boron (group III). Which statement about the doped crystal is correct?

    • A. It is p-type, with free electrons as the majority carriers
    • B. It is positively charged because it has extra holes
    • C. It is n-type, with electrons as the majority carriers
    • D. It is p-type, with holes as the majority carriers
  16. Q21. Which statement about a p–n junction diode under reverse bias is correct?

    • A. The depletion layer widens and only a tiny current of minority carriers flows
    • B. The barrier potential is reduced to zero
    • C. The depletion layer disappears and the diode conducts freely
    • D. The depletion layer narrows and a large current of majority carriers flows
  17. Q22. A full-wave rectifier is supplied from a 50 Hz AC mains source. The frequency of the ripple in the rectified output is

    • A. 100 Hz
    • B. 50 Hz
    • C. 25 Hz
    • D. 200 Hz
  18. Q23. A transistor in the common-emitter configuration has current gain β = 100 and a base current of 40 μA. The emitter current is

    • A. 4.4 mA
    • B. 0.04 mA
    • C. 4 mA
    • D. 4.04 mA
  19. Q24. An ideal operational amplifier is used as a non-inverting amplifier with R₁ = 2 kΩ to ground and a feedback resistor R_f = 18 kΩ. An input of 0.30 V gives an output of

    • A. 2.7 V
    • B. −2.7 V
    • C. 3 V
    • D. 5.4 V
  20. Q25. A NOR gate has input A on one terminal and, on the other, the inverted input B (B passed through a NOT gate). For which input combination is its output 1?

    • A. A = 0, B = 1
    • B. A = 1, B = 0
    • C. A = 0, B = 0
    • D. A = 1, B = 1
  21. Q26. ²³⁸U (Z = 92) undergoes one alpha decay followed by two beta-minus decays. The resulting nucleus is

    • A. ²³⁰Th
    • B. ²³⁴U
    • C. ²³⁴Pa
    • D. ²³⁴Th
  22. Q27. Natural boron consists of 19.9% of boron-10 (10.0 u) and 80.1% of boron-11 (11.0 u). The average atomic mass is

    • A. 10.8 u
    • B. 10.5 u
    • C. 11 u
    • D. 10.2 u
  23. Q28. A black body's temperature is changed so that its peak-emission wavelength falls from 1500 nm to 750 nm. By what factor does its total radiated power increase?

    • A. 16
    • B. 4
    • C. 2
    • D. 8
  24. Q29. Hydrogen atoms are excited to the n = 5 level. The greatest number of different spectral lines that can be emitted as the atoms return to lower levels is

    • A. 4
    • B. 15
    • C. 5
    • D. 10
  25. Q30. The ¹⁴C activity of an ancient wooden object is 25% of that of living wood. If the half-life of ¹⁴C is 5730 years, the object's age is

    • A. 5730 years
    • B. 11460 years
    • C. 17190 years
    • D. 22920 years