ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Physics — Electronics, Modern, Atomic and Nuclear Physics (Set 4)

Take the ECAT Physics — Electronics, Modern, Atomic and Nuclear Physics (Set 4): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Light of photon energy 4.0 eV gives a stopping potential of 2.0 V in a photoelectric experiment. If the frequency of the light is doubled, the stopping potential becomes

    • A. 6.0 V ✓
    • B. 3.0 V
    • C. 8.0 V
    • D. 4.0 V

    Answer: A. 6.0 V

    Explanation: φ = 4.0 − 2.0 = 2.0 eV. At double frequency the photon energy is 8.0 eV, so eV_s = 8.0 − 2.0 = 6.0 eV and V_s = 6.0 V.

  2. Q2. A metal has a work function of 2.48 eV. Taking hc = 1240 eV nm, its threshold wavelength is

    • A. 500 nm ✓
    • B. 1000 nm
    • C. 250 nm
    • D. 620 nm

    Answer: A. 500 nm

    Explanation: λ₀ = hc/φ = 1240/2.48 = 500 nm.

  3. Q3. A source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 496 nm with power 2 mW. Taking hc = 1240 eV nm and e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C, the number of photons emitted per second is

    • A. 5 × 10¹⁵ ✓
    • B. 5 × 10¹⁸
    • C. 2 × 10¹⁶
    • D. 1.25 × 10¹⁵

    Answer: A. 5 × 10¹⁵

    Explanation: E = 1240/496 = 2.5 eV = 4 × 10⁻¹⁹ J. N = P/E = (2 × 10⁻³)/(4 × 10⁻¹⁹) = 5 × 10¹⁵ s⁻¹.

  4. Q4. An electron accelerated through 150 V has a de Broglie wavelength (use λ = 1.227/√V nm, V in volts) of about

    • A. 0.15 nm
    • B. 0.10 nm ✓
    • C. 0.010 nm
    • D. 1.0 nm

    Answer: B. 0.10 nm

    Explanation: λ = 1.227/√150 = 1.227/12.25 ≈ 0.100 nm.

  5. Q5. An electron and a proton have equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the electron's de Broglie wavelength to the proton's is about (m_p/m_e = 1836)

    • A. (1836)²
    • B. 1/43
    • C. 1836
    • D. 43 ✓

    Answer: D. 43

    Explanation: λ = h/√(2mK) ∝ 1/√m, so λ_e/λ_p = √(m_p/m_e) = √1836 ≈ 43.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. The energy of the n = 2 level of the doubly ionised lithium ion Li²⁺ (Z = 3), given that the hydrogen ground state is −13.6 eV, is

    • A. −10.2 eV
    • B. −30.6 eV
    • C. −6.8 eV
    • D. −3.4 eV
  2. Q7. In the Bohr model of hydrogen, the ratio of the orbital period of the electron in the n = 3 orbit to that in the n = 1 orbit is

    • A. 81 : 1
    • B. 3 : 1
    • C. 9 : 1
    • D. 27 : 1
  3. Q8. The longest wavelength in the Paschen series of hydrogen (R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹) is about

    • A. 656 nm
    • B. 1282 nm
    • C. 820 nm
    • D. 1875 nm
  4. Q9. The activity of a radioactive sample falls from 1600 Bq to 200 Bq in 3 hours. Its half-life is

    • A. 1.5 hours
    • B. 1 hour
    • C. 0.5 hour
    • D. 2 hours
  5. Q10. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 10 days. Its mean life is about

    • A. 20 days
    • B. 14.4 days
    • C. 10 days
    • D. 6.9 days
  6. Q11. A uranium-238 nucleus (Z = 92) ends as stable lead-206 (Z = 82) after a series of decays. The numbers of α and β⁻ particles emitted are

    • A. 4 α and 6 β⁻
    • B. 8 α and 6 β⁻
    • C. 6 α and 8 β⁻
    • D. 8 α and 10 β⁻
  7. Q12. Sample A has a half-life of 1 hour and sample B a half-life of 2 hours. They start with equal numbers of nuclei. After 4 hours the ratio of the number of undecayed nuclei in A to that in B is

    • A. 1 : 2
    • B. 1 : 8
    • C. 1 : 16
    • D. 1 : 4
  8. Q13. The Sun radiates about 4 × 10²⁶ W. Taking c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, the rate at which it loses mass is about

    • A. 1.2 × 10³⁵ kg/s
    • B. 1.3 × 10¹⁸ kg/s
    • C. 4.4 × 10⁶ kg/s
    • D. 4.4 × 10⁹ kg/s
  9. Q14. The mass defect of a helium-4 nucleus is 0.0304 u (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c²). The binding energy per nucleon is about

    • A. 3.5 MeV
    • B. 28.3 MeV
    • C. 14.2 MeV
    • D. 7.1 MeV
  10. Q15. If each fission of a U-235 nucleus releases 200 MeV, the energy released by the complete fission of 1 kg of U-235 (take N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ per mole, 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10⁻¹³ J) is about

    • A. 2 × 10¹⁶ J
    • B. 8 × 10¹³ J
    • C. 1.9 × 10¹⁹ J
    • D. 8 × 10¹⁰ J
  11. Q16. Taking the nuclear radius as R = R₀A^(1/3) with R₀ = 1.2 fm, the radius of an aluminium-27 nucleus is

    • A. 32.4 fm
    • B. 8.1 fm
    • C. 3.6 fm
    • D. 1.2 fm
  12. Q17. Muons have a proper mean lifetime of 2.2 μs. For muons travelling at 0.8c (c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s), the average distance covered before decaying, as measured in the laboratory, is

    • A. 660 m
    • B. 528 m
    • C. 880 m
    • D. 1467 m
  13. Q18. A spaceship of proper length 100 m passes an observer and is measured to be 60 m long. Its speed is

    • A. 0.5c
    • B. 0.6c
    • C. 0.4c
    • D. 0.8c
  14. Q19. A particle moves at 0.6c. Its kinetic energy as a fraction of its rest energy is

    • A. 1/4
    • B. 1/3
    • C. 1/2
    • D. 3/5
  15. Q20. An electron and a positron annihilate at rest producing two identical photons. Taking the electron rest energy as 0.511 MeV and hc = 1240 eV nm, the wavelength of each photon is about

    • A. 24 pm
    • B. 0.24 pm
    • C. 2.4 pm
    • D. 1.2 pm
  16. Q21. For Compton scattering from free electrons, given that h/mc = 2.43 pm, the largest possible change in wavelength of the scattered photon is

    • A. 4.86 pm
    • B. 9.72 pm
    • C. 2.43 pm
    • D. 1.22 pm
  17. Q22. The accelerating voltage of an X-ray tube is 31 kV. Taking hc = 1240 eV nm, the minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted is

    • A. 0.40 nm
    • B. 0.040 nm
    • C. 0.080 nm
    • D. 0.0040 nm
  18. Q23. In a transistor with current gain β = 100 (common emitter), the base current is 40 μA. The emitter current is

    • A. 40.4 mA
    • B. 4.04 mA
    • C. 4.00 mA
    • D. 0.40 mA
  19. Q24. A non-inverting op-amp amplifier has a feedback resistor of 90 kΩ and an input resistor of 10 kΩ to ground. For an input of 0.25 V the output voltage is

    • A. −2.5 V
    • B. 2.5 V
    • C. 2.25 V
    • D. −2.25 V
  20. Q25. A two-input NOR gate has both of its inputs connected together to a single input A. The gate then behaves as a

    • A. OR gate
    • B. NAND gate
    • C. NOT gate
    • D. AND gate
  21. Q26. A logic circuit gives Y = (A · B) + (A · B̄), where B̄ is NOT B. The output Y equals

    • A. A + B
    • B. A · B
    • C. A
    • D. B
  22. Q27. The small current that flows in a reverse-biased p–n junction diode is due to

    • A. the diffusion of holes from p to n
    • B. minority carriers
    • C. thermal breakdown of the lattice
    • D. majority carriers
  23. Q28. The absolute temperature of a black body is increased from 300 K to 900 K. The rate at which it radiates energy increases by a factor of

    • A. 9
    • B. 81
    • C. 27
    • D. 3
  24. Q29. Which condition is essential for laser action to take place in a medium?

    • A. Thermal equilibrium between the energy levels
    • B. Absorption that is greater than stimulated emission
    • C. More atoms in the ground state than in the excited state
    • D. A population inversion between two energy levels
  25. Q30. A full-wave rectifier using two diodes is fed from 50 Hz mains through a centre-tapped transformer. The fundamental frequency of the ripple in its output is

    • A. 25 Hz
    • B. 200 Hz
    • C. 50 Hz
    • D. 100 Hz