ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Full-Length Mock Test 1 (100 MCQs)

Take the ECAT Full-Length Mock Test 1 (100 MCQs): 100 multiple-choice questions (110 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review. Covers 30…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. In how many ways can the letters A, B, C, D, E be arranged in a row so that A and B are NOT next to each other?

    • A. 96
    • B. 24
    • C. 48
    • D. 72 ✓

    Answer: D. 72

    Explanation: Total 5! = 120; arrangements with A and B together = 4! × 2 = 48; so 120 − 48 = 72.

  2. Q2. The number of solutions of tan²x = 1 in the interval [0, 2π) is:

    • A. 2
    • B. 1
    • C. 8
    • D. 4 ✓

    Answer: D. 4

    Explanation: tan x = ±1 gives x = π/4, 3π/4, 5π/4 and 7π/4: four solutions.

  3. Q3. The homogeneous system kx + y = 0, x + ky = 0 has a non-trivial solution when:

    • A. k = ±1 ✓
    • B. k = 1 only
    • C. k = 0
    • D. k = ±2

    Answer: A. k = ±1

    Explanation: A non-trivial solution needs the coefficient determinant to vanish: k² − 1 = 0, so k = 1 or k = −1.

  4. Q4. The value of the determinant |1 2 3; 2 3 1; 3 1 2| is:

    • A. 0
    • B. 18
    • C. −6
    • D. −18 ✓

    Answer: D. −18

    Explanation: Expanding along row 1: 1(6 − 1) − 2(4 − 3) + 3(2 − 9) = 5 − 2 − 21 = −18.

  5. Q5. The sum of the infinite geometric series 0.9 + 0.09 + 0.009 + … is:

    • A. 1 ✓
    • B. 0.99
    • C. 9/10
    • D. 10/9

    Answer: A. 1

    Explanation: a = 0.9, r = 0.1, so S∞ = 0.9/(1 − 0.1) = 1.

The other 95 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. The sum of the series 1 + 4 + 7 + … + 100 is:

    • A. 1751
    • B. 1717
    • C. 1650
    • D. 1700
  2. Q7. In triangle ABC, ∠A = 45°, ∠B = 60° and a = 2√2. The side b is:

    • A. 4
    • B. 2√3
    • C. √6
    • D. 2√6
  3. Q8. The modulus of the product (1 + i)(2 + 2i) is:

    • A. 8
    • B. 2√2
    • C. √2
    • D. 4
  4. Q9. The coefficient of x³ in the expansion of (1 − x)⁶ is:

    • A. 20
    • B. −20
    • C. −15
    • D. 15
  5. Q10. The term independent of x in the expansion of (x + 1/(2x))⁴ is:

    • A. 3/2
    • B. 3
    • C. 6
    • D. 3/8
  6. Q11. The period of the function f(x) = tan 3x is:

    • A. π/3
    • B. π
    • C. 2π/3
    • D. 3π
  7. Q12. If 2, b, 6 are in harmonic progression, then b equals:

    • A. 8/3
    • B. √12
    • C. 4
    • D. 3
  8. Q13. The value of 2 tan⁻¹(1/3) is equal to:

    • A. tan⁻¹(3/4)
    • B. tan⁻¹(2/3)
    • C. tan⁻¹(1/9)
    • D. tan⁻¹(4/3)
  9. Q14. The range of the function f(x) = 2 + 3 sin x is:

    • A. [−1, 5]
    • B. [−3, 3]
    • C. [2, 5]
    • D. [−1, 3]
  10. Q15. The value of sin 105° − sin 15° is:

    • A. 1/2
    • B. 1/√2
    • C. √3/2
    • D. √6/2
  11. Q16. lim (x→0) sin(πx)/x equals:

    • A. 1
    • B. 0
    • C. 1/π
    • D. π
  12. Q17. The domain of f(x) = ln(x − 1) is:

    • A. (1, ∞)
    • B. (0, ∞)
    • C. [1, ∞)
    • D. ℝ − {1}
  13. Q18. If f(x) = x² + 1 and g(x) = 2x, then (f∘g)(1) equals:

    • A. 2
    • B. 4
    • C. 3
    • D. 5
  14. Q19. lim (x→∞) (1 + 4/x)ˣ equals:

    • A. e^(1/4)
    • B. e⁴
    • C. 4e
    • D. 1
  15. Q20. lim (x→9) (√x − 3)/(x − 9) equals:

    • A. 0
    • B. 1/3
    • C. 6
    • D. 1/6
  16. Q21. If f(x) = x³eˣ, then f′(1) equals:

    • A. 3e
    • B. e
    • C. 4e
    • D. 2e
  17. Q22. d/dx (cot x) equals:

    • A. −cot x cosec x
    • B. cosec²x
    • C. −cosec²x
    • D. −sec²x
  18. Q23. d/dx [ln(cos x)] equals:

    • A. −cot x
    • B. −tan x
    • C. 1/cos x
    • D. tan x
  19. Q24. If y = ln x, then d²y/dx² equals:

    • A. 1/x²
    • B. −1/x²
    • C. 2/x³
    • D. −1/x
  20. Q25. d/dx √(sin x) equals:

    • A. cos x/(2√(sin x))
    • B. √(cos x)
    • C. 1/(2√(cos x))
    • D. −cos x/(2√(sin x))
  21. Q26. If x² − y² = 16, then dy/dx equals:

    • A. −x/y
    • B. −y/x
    • C. y/x
    • D. x/y
  22. Q27. The slope of the tangent to y = ln x at x = 2 is:

    • A. −1/2
    • B. ln 2
    • C. 2
    • D. 1/2
  23. Q28. For x > 0, the maximum value of f(x) = 12x − x³ is:

    • A. 8
    • B. 12
    • C. 24
    • D. 16
  24. Q29. The function f(x) = eˣ − x is increasing for:

    • A. x > 1
    • B. x > 0
    • C. all real x
    • D. x < 0
  25. Q30. A stone dropped in a pond makes a circular ripple whose radius grows at 4 cm/s. How fast is the enclosed area growing when r = 10 cm?

    • A. 100π cm²/s
    • B. 80π cm²/s
    • C. 20π cm²/s
    • D. 40π cm²/s
  26. Q31. Pressure is force per unit area. Which dimensional formula represents it?

    • A. [ML⁻¹T⁻²]
    • B. [MLT⁻²]
    • C. [ML⁻²T⁻¹]
    • D. [ML²T⁻²]
  27. Q32. Suppose velocity [V], time [T] and force [F] were chosen as the fundamental quantities instead of length, mass and time. What would be the dimensions of mass?

    • A. [FV⁻¹T⁻¹]
    • B. [FTV⁻¹]
    • C. [FTV]
    • D. [FVT⁻¹]
  28. Q33. The sides of a rectangular card are measured as 5.0 ± 0.1 cm and 2.0 ± 0.1 cm. What is the percentage uncertainty in its area?

    • A. 5%
    • B. 2%
    • C. 7%
    • D. 3.5%
  29. Q34. How many significant figures does the value 6.020 × 10²³ contain?

    • A. 4
    • B. 27
    • C. 23
    • D. 3
  30. Q35. For two non-zero vectors the magnitude of their cross product equals their dot product. What is the angle between them?

    • A. 90°
    • B. 0°
    • C. 60°
    • D. 45°
  31. Q36. Which vector has magnitude 10 units and points in the same direction as 3i + 4j?

    • A. 30i + 40j
    • B. 3i + 4j
    • C. 6i + 8j
    • D. 0.6i + 0.8j
  32. Q37. A force of 5j N acts at the point with position vector 2i m. What is its torque about the origin?

    • A. −10k N m
    • B. 10 N m along j
    • C. 7k N m
    • D. 10k N m
  33. Q38. Forces of 6 N due east and 8 N due north act on a particle. What single extra force will keep it in equilibrium?

    • A. 2 N towards south
    • B. 14 N towards south-west
    • C. 10 N in the direction of the resultant
    • D. 10 N, opposite in direction to the resultant of the two forces
  34. Q39. A train moving at 30 m/s brakes with a uniform retardation of 1.5 m/s². How long does it take to stop?

    • A. 45 s
    • B. 15 s
    • C. 10 s
    • D. 20 s
  35. Q40. An apple falls freely from rest from a tall tree. What distance does it cover between t = 3 s and t = 4 s? (g = 10 m/s²)

    • A. 10 m
    • B. 35 m
    • C. 80 m
    • D. 45 m
  36. Q41. A ball is projected at 20 m/s over level ground and lands 20√3 m away. At which angles of projection is this possible? (g = 10 m/s²)

    • A. 30° or 60°
    • B. 15° or 75°
    • C. 45° only
    • D. 60° only
  37. Q42. At the same instant, one ball is dropped from a height and another is thrown horizontally from the same height. Neglecting air resistance:

    • A. the heavier ball always lands first
    • B. the dropped ball lands first
    • C. the thrown ball lands first
    • D. both reach the ground at the same time
  38. Q43. A 50 g ball travelling at 20 m/s is caught and brought to rest in 0.1 s. What average force acts on the catcher's hands?

    • A. 1 N
    • B. 1000 N
    • C. 100 N
    • D. 10 N
  39. Q44. A pump lifts 3600 kg of water per hour to a tank 20 m above it. What is its useful power output? (g = 10 m/s²)

    • A. 200 W
    • B. 720 W
    • C. 2000 W
    • D. 20 W
  40. Q45. The kinetic energy of a body increases by 44% while its mass stays the same. By what percentage does its momentum increase?

    • A. 22%
    • B. 44%
    • C. 12%
    • D. 20%
  41. Q46. Compressing a spring by 5 cm stores 0.5 J of energy in it. What is its spring constant?

    • A. 200 N/m
    • B. 20 N/m
    • C. 40 N/m
    • D. 400 N/m
  42. Q47. A small block slides from rest down a smooth curved ramp whose top is 5 m above its bottom. What is its speed at the bottom? (g = 10 m/s²)

    • A. 10 m/s
    • B. It depends on the shape of the ramp
    • C. 50 m/s
    • D. 5 m/s
  43. Q48. What is the angular speed of the second hand of a clock?

    • A. π/1800 rad/s
    • B. 2π rad/s
    • C. π/30 rad/s
    • D. 60 rad/s
  44. Q49. A pilot flies a loop in a vertical circle of radius 400 m. At the lowest point his speed is 80 m/s. How many times his normal weight does he feel there? (g = 10 m/s²)

    • A. 2.6 times
    • B. 0.6 times
    • C. 1.6 times
    • D. 2 times
  45. Q50. A uniform rod of mass 3 kg and length 1 m swings about a horizontal axis through one end (I = ML²/3). What is its rotational kinetic energy when its angular speed is 2 rad/s?

    • A. 4 J
    • B. 0.5 J
    • C. 6 J
    • D. 2 J
  46. Q51. Taking g = 10 m/s² and R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, roughly how long does a satellite orbiting just above the Earth's surface take for one revolution?

    • A. About 84 minutes
    • B. About 8 minutes
    • C. About 24 hours
    • D. About 12 hours
  47. Q52. Two raindrops are made of the same water, but one has three times the radius of the other. Using Stokes' law, the ratio of their terminal velocities (large : small) is:

    • A. 27 : 1
    • B. 3 : 1
    • C. 9 : 1
    • D. 1 : 9
  48. Q53. A tap fills a 10 litre bucket in 20 s. The tap opening has a cross-sectional area of 1 cm². With what speed does water leave the tap?

    • A. 2 m/s
    • B. 5 m/s
    • C. 50 m/s
    • D. 0.5 m/s
  49. Q54. Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of varying width. Where is the water pressure lowest?

    • A. At the narrowest part of the pipe
    • B. It is the same everywhere
    • C. At the widest part
    • D. At the inlet, whatever its width
  50. Q55. Water flows through a horizontal pipe. At a wide section the pressure is 1.5 × 10⁵ Pa and the speed 2 m/s; at a narrow section the speed is 6 m/s. What is the pressure at the narrow section? (density of water 1000 kg/m³)

    • A. 1.66 × 10⁵ Pa
    • B. 1.34 × 10⁵ Pa
    • C. 1.30 × 10⁵ Pa
    • D. 1.48 × 10⁵ Pa
  51. Q56. A particle moves so that its acceleration is a = −16x (SI units). What is its period of oscillation?

    • A. π/8 s
    • B. π/2 s
    • C. 2π s
    • D. 8π s
  52. Q57. A spring is cut into two equal halves and the same mass is hung from one half. Compared with the period on the whole spring, the new period is:

    • A. larger by a factor √2
    • B. half
    • C. unchanged
    • D. smaller by a factor √2
  53. Q58. At the mean position of a body executing SHM:

    • A. its speed is zero and its acceleration is maximum
    • B. its speed and acceleration are both maximum
    • C. its speed is maximum and its acceleration is zero
    • D. its speed and acceleration are both zero
  54. Q59. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is one-sixth of that on the Earth. A pendulum clock taken to the Moon will have a period:

    • A. √6 times its value on Earth
    • B. the same as on Earth
    • C. 1/√6 of its value on Earth
    • D. 6 times its value on Earth
  55. Q60. A stretched string fixed at both ends has two successive resonant frequencies of 300 Hz and 400 Hz. What is its fundamental frequency?

    • A. 300 Hz
    • B. 100 Hz
    • C. 200 Hz
    • D. 50 Hz
  56. Q61. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in 0.5 mol of Ca(NO₃)₂?

    • A. 0.5 mol
    • B. 3 mol
    • C. 6 mol
    • D. 1.5 mol
  57. Q62. The mass of a single water molecule is about (Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³ mol⁻¹):

    • A. 3.34 × 10⁻²⁴ g
    • B. 2.99 × 10⁻²³ g
    • C. 1.08 × 10⁻²² g
    • D. 18 g
  58. Q63. 0.2 mol of a gas has a mass of 8.8 g. The gas could be:

    • A. CO₂
    • B. SO₂
    • C. N₂
    • D. O₂
  59. Q64. In the thermite reaction 2Al + Fe₂O₃ → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe, 5.4 g of Al reacts with excess Fe₂O₃. The mass of iron formed is (Al = 27, Fe = 56):

    • A. 11.2 g
    • B. 22.4 g
    • C. 16.8 g
    • D. 5.6 g
  60. Q65. In paper chromatography a spot travels 3 cm while the solvent front travels 12 cm. The Rf value of the substance is:

    • A. 0.25
    • B. 4.0
    • C. 0.33
    • D. 0.75
  61. Q66. When extracting a solute from water into ether, it is more efficient to:

    • A. Use the whole volume of ether in one extraction
    • B. Use several small portions of ether in successive extractions
    • C. Heat the mixture to boiling
    • D. Add more water before extracting
  62. Q67. Which substance can be purified by sublimation?

    • A. Sugar
    • B. Copper sulphate
    • C. Iodine
    • D. Sodium chloride
  63. Q68. A gas in a sealed rigid container at 27°C and 1 atm is heated to 327°C. Its pressure becomes:

    • A. 2 atm
    • B. 0.5 atm
    • C. 12.1 atm
    • D. 1.5 atm
  64. Q69. Equal masses of CH₄ and O₂ are mixed in an empty container. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by O₂ is:

    • A. 1/4
    • B. 1/2
    • C. 1/3
    • D. 2/3
  65. Q70. For a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure, a graph of volume against temperature in °C is a straight line that, when extended, cuts the temperature axis at:

    • A. 0°C
    • B. 273.15°C
    • C. −273.15°C
    • D. −100°C
  66. Q71. The kinetic gas equation is:

    • A. PV = nRT²
    • B. P = ⅓ mV c̄²
    • C. PV = ⅓ mN c̄²
    • D. PV = ½ mN c̄
  67. Q72. The attraction between an HCl molecule and an argon atom is an example of:

    • A. Dipole–dipole forces
    • B. Ion–dipole forces
    • C. Hydrogen bonding
    • D. Dipole–induced dipole (Debye) forces
  68. Q73. The boiling points of the noble gases increase from He to Xe because:

    • A. Their ionization energies increase
    • B. Hydrogen bonding increases
    • C. They form diatomic molecules
    • D. Their atoms become more polarizable, increasing London dispersion forces
  69. Q74. A metal crystallizes in a body-centred cubic lattice with an edge length of 300 pm. The distance between nearest-neighbour atoms is about:

    • A. 212 pm
    • B. 150 pm
    • C. 300 pm
    • D. 260 pm
  70. Q75. How many NaCl formula units are present in one unit cell of the sodium chloride (rock salt) structure?

    • A. 6
    • B. 1
    • C. 4
    • D. 2
  71. Q76. How many electrons in a ground-state chlorine atom (Z = 17) have l = 1?

    • A. 11
    • B. 5
    • C. 17
    • D. 6
  72. Q77. The wavelength of a photon with an energy of 2.0 eV is about (hc = 1240 eV nm):

    • A. 1240 nm
    • B. 620 nm
    • C. 2480 nm
    • D. 310 nm
  73. Q78. The energy of a photon of wavelength 200 nm compared with one of wavelength 400 nm is:

    • A. Half as much
    • B. Four times as much
    • C. Twice as much
    • D. The same
  74. Q79. How many radial nodes does a 3s orbital have?

    • A. 1
    • B. 2
    • C. 0
    • D. 3
  75. Q80. The splitting of spectral lines when atoms are placed in a magnetic field (Zeeman effect) is explained by the:

    • A. Magnetic quantum number
    • B. Mass number
    • C. Principal quantum number
    • D. Spin quantum number only
  76. Q81. The shape of the nitrate ion, NO₃⁻, is:

    • A. T-shaped
    • B. Trigonal pyramidal
    • C. Tetrahedral
    • D. Trigonal planar
  77. Q82. According to MO theory, the bond order of nitric oxide (NO, 15 electrons) is:

    • A. 1.5
    • B. 3
    • C. 2
    • D. 2.5
  78. Q83. MgO has a far higher lattice energy than NaCl mainly because:

    • A. NaCl has a different crystal structure
    • B. MgO is covalent
    • C. Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ carry double charges and are small
    • D. Na⁺ is smaller than Mg²⁺
  79. Q84. Which molecule has the smallest bond angle?

    • A. CH₄
    • B. H₂O
    • C. NH₃
    • D. H₂S
  80. Q85. In which species is the central atom sp² hybridized?

    • A. SO₃
    • B. CH₄
    • C. NH₃
    • D. BeCl₂
  81. Q86. For NaCl, the lattice energy is −788 kJ mol⁻¹ and the total hydration energy of its ions is −784 kJ mol⁻¹. The enthalpy of solution of NaCl is:

    • A. +1572 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. −1572 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. −4 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. +4 kJ mol⁻¹
  82. Q87. How much heat is needed to warm 36 g of water from 25°C to 75°C (c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹)?

    • A. 3.76 kJ
    • B. 15.0 kJ
    • C. 7.52 kJ
    • D. 1.50 kJ
  83. Q88. For CO(g) + ½O₂(g) → CO₂(g) at 298 K, the value of ΔH − ΔE is about (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹):

    • A. +1.24 kJ
    • B. 0
    • C. −2.48 kJ
    • D. −1.24 kJ
  84. Q89. In the energy profile of an exothermic reaction:

    • A. There is no energy barrier
    • B. The products lie higher in energy than the reactants
    • C. The products lie lower in energy than the reactants
    • D. The activation energy is negative
  85. Q90. For N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g), the equilibrium concentrations are [N₂O₄] = 0.04 M and [NO₂] = 0.02 M. Kc is:

    • A. 2.0
    • B. 100
    • C. 0.01
    • D. 0.5
  86. Q91. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The factory workers ___ on strike since last Monday.

    • A. are
    • B. had been
    • C. have been
    • D. were
  87. Q92. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: Neither the students nor the teacher ___ aware of the change in the schedule.

    • A. were
    • B. are
    • C. have
    • D. was
  88. Q93. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: She would have caught the bus if she ___ faster.

    • A. would run
    • B. had run
    • C. ran
    • D. has run
  89. Q94. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: My grandfather ___ in this village all his life; he still lives in the same house.

    • A. is living
    • B. has lived
    • C. had lived
    • D. lived
  90. Q95. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The new hospital is equipped ___ solar panels on every roof.

    • A. by
    • B. for
    • C. with
    • D. of
  91. Q96. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: ___ Arabian Sea lies to the south of Pakistan.

    • A. An
    • B. The
    • C. A
    • D. (no article)
  92. Q97. In which sentence is the article 'a' or 'an' used correctly?

    • A. It was an unique opportunity.
    • B. It was a unique opportunity.
    • C. He waited for a hour.
    • D. It was a honour to meet you.
  93. Q98. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: We waited under the shelter ___ the rain stopped.

    • A. unless
    • B. until
    • C. despite
    • D. lest
  94. Q99. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: The jewellery in this box ___ to my grandmother.

    • A. belongs
    • B. are belonging
    • C. have belonged
    • D. belong
  95. Q100. Which option correctly completes the sentence? 'Walking along the beach, ___.'

    • A. a beautiful shell caught our eye
    • B. a beautiful shell was found by us
    • C. the shell looked beautiful
    • D. we found a beautiful shell