ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 7)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 7): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Using the spin-only formula μ = √[n(n + 2)] BM, the magnetic moment of the Ni²⁺ ion (Z = 28 for Ni) in a high-spin octahedral complex is:

    • A. 2.83 BM ✓
    • B. 1.73 BM
    • C. 4.90 BM
    • D. 3.87 BM

    Answer: A. 2.83 BM

    Explanation: Ni²⁺ is 3d⁸ with 2 unpaired electrons: μ = √(2 × 4) = √8 = 2.83 BM.

  2. Q2. Which of the following aqueous ions is colourless (Ti Z = 22, Cr 24, Fe 26, Co 27)?

    • A. Fe³⁺
    • B. Ti⁴⁺ ✓
    • C. Cr³⁺
    • D. Co²⁺

    Answer: B. Ti⁴⁺

    Explanation: Ti⁴⁺ has the configuration [Ar] (3d⁰), so there are no d electrons for d–d transitions. Cr³⁺, Fe³⁺ and Co²⁺ have partially filled d subshells.

  3. Q3. Which of the following species contains a transition element in the highest oxidation state (VO₂⁺, CrO₄²⁻, MnO₄⁻, FeO₄²⁻ with Fe taken as +6)?

    • A. FeO₄²⁻ (+6)
    • B. CrO₄²⁻ (+6)
    • C. VO₂⁺ (+5)
    • D. MnO₄⁻ (+7) ✓

    Answer: D. MnO₄⁻ (+7)

    Explanation: Oxidation numbers: V = +5, Cr = +6, Mn = +7, Fe = +6. Mn in permanganate has the highest value.

  4. Q4. 25.0 cm³ of Fe²⁺ solution is oxidised by 15.0 cm³ of 0.020 M K₂Cr₂O₇ in acidic solution (Cr₂O₇²⁻ → Cr³⁺, Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺). The molarity of Fe²⁺ is:

    • A. 0.072 M ✓
    • B. 0.144 M
    • C. 0.0120 M
    • D. 0.036 M

    Answer: A. 0.072 M

    Explanation: Cr₂O₇²⁻ = 0.300 mmol, which takes 6 Fe²⁺ each: 1.80 mmol Fe²⁺ in 25.0 cm³ = 0.072 M.

  5. Q5. 25.0 cm³ of a Cu²⁺ solution is treated with excess KI (2Cu²⁺ + 4I⁻ → 2CuI + I₂). The I₂ liberated needs 20.0 cm³ of 0.100 M Na₂S₂O₃ (I₂ + 2S₂O₃²⁻ → 2I⁻ + S₄O₆²⁻). The molarity of Cu²⁺ is:

    • A. 0.040 M
    • B. 0.080 M ✓
    • C. 0.060 M
    • D. 0.16 M

    Answer: B. 0.080 M

    Explanation: S₂O₃²⁻ = 2.00 mmol → I₂ = 1.00 mmol → Cu²⁺ = 2.00 mmol (2Cu²⁺ per I₂); 2.00 mmol/25.0 cm³ = 0.080 M.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. Excess AgNO₃ solution is added to a solution containing 1 mol of [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂. How many moles of AgCl are precipitated?

    • A. 0
    • B. 2
    • C. 3
    • D. 1
  2. Q7. The complex ion [Co(en)₃]³⁺ contains three molecules of ethylenediamine (en, H₂NCH₂CH₂NH₂), each bonding through both nitrogen atoms. The coordination number of cobalt is:

    • A. 3
    • B. 6
    • C. 2
    • D. 9
  3. Q8. The charge on the complex ion in K₄[Fe(CN)₆], and the oxidation state of iron in it, are respectively:

    • A. 4−, +3
    • B. 6−, +2
    • C. 4−, +2
    • D. 3−, +3
  4. Q9. An iron ore contains 80% Fe₂O₃ by mass (Fe = 56, O = 16). Assuming complete reduction, the mass of iron obtainable from 1000 kg of this ore is:

    • A. 800 kg
    • B. 280 kg
    • C. 560 kg
    • D. 840 kg
  5. Q10. In the basic oxygen steel-making process, acidic oxides such as SiO₂ and P₄O₁₀ from the pig iron are removed as slag by adding which flux?

    • A. SiO₂
    • B. CO₂
    • C. CaO
    • D. Fe₂O₃
  6. Q11. For N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ (ΔH = −92 kJ mol⁻¹), which set of conditions gives the highest EQUILIBRIUM yield of ammonia?

    • A. low pressure and high temperature
    • B. high pressure and low temperature
    • C. high pressure and high temperature
    • D. low pressure and low temperature
  7. Q12. In the Ostwald process, 4NH₃ + 5O₂ → 4NO + 6H₂O, then NO is converted finally to HNO₃ with the overall relation 1 mol NH₃ → 1 mol HNO₃ (N = 14, H = 1, O = 16). The mass of HNO₃ obtainable from 3.4 kg of NH₃ at 100% efficiency is:

    • A. 0.9 kg
    • B. 25.2 kg
    • C. 6.3 kg
    • D. 12.6 kg
  8. Q13. In the contact process, 32 g of sulphur is converted to H₂SO₄ with an overall yield of 90% (S = 32, H₂SO₄ = 98 g mol⁻¹). The mass of H₂SO₄ produced is:

    • A. 88.2 g
    • B. 98.0 g
    • C. 108.9 g
    • D. 44.1 g
  9. Q14. The nitrogen content of ammonium nitrate (80 g mol⁻¹) is 35% and that of urea (60 g mol⁻¹) is 46.7%. What mass of urea supplies the same mass of nitrogen as 100 kg of ammonium nitrate?

    • A. 50.0 kg
    • B. 75.0 kg
    • C. 35.0 kg
    • D. 133.4 kg
  10. Q15. Superphosphate is made by Ca₃(PO₄)₂ + 2H₂SO₄ → Ca(H₂PO₄)₂ + 2CaSO₄ (Ca₃(PO₄)₂ = 310 g mol⁻¹; H₂SO₄ = 98 g mol⁻¹). The mass of H₂SO₄ needed for 31 g of Ca₃(PO₄)₂ is:

    • A. 19.6 g
    • B. 39.2 g
    • C. 29.4 g
    • D. 9.8 g
  11. Q16. A small amount of gypsum is added to cement clinker during grinding in order to:

    • A. slow down the setting of the cement
    • B. lower the temperature of the kiln
    • C. increase the lime content of the clinker
    • D. speed up the setting of the cement
  12. Q17. In thermal cracking, dodecane, C₁₂H₂₆, splits into octane and one other hydrocarbon. The other product is:

    • A. C₆H₁₂
    • B. C₄H₁₀
    • C. C₄H₈
    • D. C₄H₆
  13. Q18. In the rusting of iron, the anodic reaction at the site of corrosion is:

    • A. Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻
    • B. 2H⁺ + 2e⁻ → H₂
    • C. Fe²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Fe
    • D. O₂ + 2H₂O + 4e⁻ → 4OH⁻
  14. Q19. Which of the following alloys contains NO copper?

    • A. bronze
    • B. stainless steel
    • C. brass
    • D. German silver
  15. Q20. In acidic solution Cr₂O₇²⁻ is reduced to Cr³⁺ (Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 14H⁺ + 6e⁻ → 2Cr³⁺ + 7H₂O). The equivalent mass of K₂Cr₂O₇ (294 g mol⁻¹) in this reaction is:

    • A. 147.0 g
    • B. 49.0 g
    • C. 294.0 g
    • D. 98.0 g
  16. Q21. Aqueous orange potassium dichromate is made distinctly alkaline with NaOH. The colour changes to:

    • A. yellow, due to the formation of CrO₄²⁻
    • B. orange-red, due to the formation of CrO₃
    • C. green, due to the formation of Cr³⁺
    • D. purple, due to the formation of MnO₄⁻
  17. Q22. When aqueous ammonia is added drop by drop to CuSO₄ solution, a pale blue precipitate forms first and then dissolves in excess ammonia to give:

    • A. a deep blue solution of [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺
    • B. a colourless solution of [Cu(NH₃)₄]⁺ ions
    • C. a yellow solution of the complex [Cu(NH₃)₆]³⁺
    • D. a green solution of the complex [Cu(OH)₄]²⁻
  18. Q23. Zinc dissolves in hot concentrated NaOH: Zn + 2NaOH + 2H₂O → Na₂[Zn(OH)₄] + H₂ (Zn = 65). The volume of H₂ at STP (molar volume 22.4 dm³ mol⁻¹) from 6.5 g of zinc is:

    • A. 6.72 dm³
    • B. 1.12 dm³
    • C. 4.48 dm³
    • D. 2.24 dm³
  19. Q24. In the cyanide process for gold, 4Au + 8NaCN + O₂ + 2H₂O → 4Na[Au(CN)₂] + 4NaOH. The gold is then recovered from the solution by adding:

    • A. dilute sulphuric acid, which neutralises NaOH
    • B. chlorine gas, which oxidises Au⁺ to Au³⁺
    • C. copper sulphate solution, which displaces gold
    • D. zinc dust, which reduces Au⁺ ions to Au metal
  20. Q25. In the electrolytic refining of copper, a current of 2.0 A flows for 9650 s through CuSO₄ solution (Cu = 63.5, F = 96 500 C mol⁻¹). The mass of copper deposited on the pure cathode is:

    • A. 3.18 g
    • B. 6.35 g
    • C. 12.7 g
    • D. 25.40 g
  21. Q26. In the Hall–Héroult process the net change is 2Al₂O₃ + 3C → 4Al + 3CO₂ (Al = 27, C = 12). The mass of carbon anode consumed when 54 g of Al is produced is:

    • A. 24 g
    • B. 9 g
    • C. 36 g
    • D. 18 g
  22. Q27. Finely divided nickel is used industrially as a catalyst for:

    • A. the synthesis of NH₃ from N₂ and H₂ by Haber's method
    • B. the hydrogenation of vegetable oils to give solid fats
    • C. the oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃ in the contact process
    • D. the oxidation of NH₃ to NO in the Ostwald process
  23. Q28. Which of the following 3d elements shows only one oxidation state (+3) in its compounds?

    • A. Sc
    • B. Ti
    • C. Fe
    • D. Mn
  24. Q29. Chlorofluorocarbons deplete stratospheric ozone through the reactions Cl· + O₃ → ClO· + O₂ and ClO· + O → Cl· + O₂. In this sequence the chlorine atom acts as:

    • A. an oxidising agent only, with no net effect on the cycle
    • B. a reactant, since it is consumed
    • C. an inhibitor of ozone decomposition
    • D. a catalyst, since it is regenerated
  25. Q30. How many electrons are present in the 4s subshell of an Fe²⁺ ion in its ground state (Fe: Z = 26)?

    • A. 2
    • B. 1
    • C. 0
    • D. 6