ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 6)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 6): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Using μ = √[n(n + 2)] BM, the spin-only magnetic moment of the high-spin Mn³⁺ ion (Z = 25) is:

    • A. 3.87 BM
    • B. 4.90 BM ✓
    • C. 5.92 BM
    • D. 2.83 BM

    Answer: B. 4.90 BM

    Explanation: Mn³⁺ = [Ar]3d⁴, with 4 unpaired electrons: μ = √(4 × 6) = √24 = 4.90 BM.

  2. Q2. Which of the following ions is expected to be colourless in aqueous solution?

    • A. Ti³⁺
    • B. V³⁺
    • C. Ti⁴⁺ ✓
    • D. Cu²⁺

    Answer: C. Ti⁴⁺

    Explanation: Colour arises from d–d transitions, which need a partly filled d subshell. Ti⁴⁺ is 3d⁰, so it is colourless; Ti³⁺ (d¹), V³⁺ (d²) and Cu²⁺ (d⁹) are coloured.

  3. Q3. Which first-row transition element exhibits the widest range of oxidation states, from +2 up to +7?

    • A. V
    • B. Mn ✓
    • C. Cr
    • D. Fe

    Answer: B. Mn

    Explanation: Manganese shows +2, +3, +4, +6 and +7 (as in MnO₄⁻); chromium goes only to +6 and iron to +6 (rare).

  4. Q4. In neutral solution MnO₄⁻ is reduced to MnO₂, while SO₃²⁻ is oxidised to SO₄²⁻. The number of moles of sulphite oxidised by 1 mol of permanganate is:

    • A. 1.0
    • B. 1.5 ✓
    • C. 5.0
    • D. 2.5

    Answer: B. 1.5

    Explanation: MnO₄⁻ → MnO₂ takes 3 e⁻; SO₃²⁻ → SO₄²⁻ gives 2 e⁻ each. Moles = 3/2 = 1.5. (In acidic solution, with 5 e⁻, it would be 2.5.)

  5. Q5. In acidic solution, Cr₂O₇²⁻ oxidises Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺ and is reduced to Cr³⁺. The volume of 0.10 M K₂Cr₂O₇ needed to oxidise 30 cm³ of 0.20 M FeSO₄ is:

    • A. 5.0 cm³
    • B. 20 cm³
    • C. 10 cm³ ✓
    • D. 60 cm³

    Answer: C. 10 cm³

    Explanation: Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 14H⁺ + 6Fe²⁺ → 2Cr³⁺ + 6Fe³⁺ + 7H₂O. Fe²⁺ = 6.0 mmol, so dichromate = 1.0 mmol; volume = 1.0/0.10 = 10 cm³.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Orange potassium dichromate solution turns yellow on adding excess aqueous NaOH: Cr₂O₇²⁻ + 2OH⁻ → 2CrO₄²⁻ + H₂O. The oxidation number of chromium in this change:

    • A. remains +6, so it is not a redox reaction
    • B. changes from +6 to +4, so chromium is reduced
    • C. changes from +3 to +6, so chromium is oxidised
    • D. changes from +6 to +3, so chromium is reduced
  2. Q7. Which of the following aqueous ions (high-spin) has the largest number of unpaired electrons?

    • A. Ni²⁺
    • B. Fe²⁺
    • C. Cr³⁺
    • D. Co²⁺
  3. Q8. In the complex [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ only the two chloride ions outside the coordination sphere precipitate with AgNO₃ (Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5). The mass of AgCl obtained from 0.010 mol of the complex with excess AgNO₃ is:

    • A. 4.31 g
    • B. 0.72 g
    • C. 2.87 g
    • D. 1.43 g
  4. Q9. In the contact process, SO₃ is absorbed in 98% sulphuric acid rather than in water because:

    • A. the product formed when water is used is oleum
    • B. 98% H₂SO₄ is a better catalyst for the absorption than water
    • C. SO₃ does not react with water at the temperature used
    • D. water would give a fine acid mist and the reaction is hard to control
  5. Q10. In the Ostwald process, 17 g of ammonia is converted completely to nitric acid: NH₃ → NO → NO₂ → HNO₃ (N = 14, H = 1, O = 16). The mass of HNO₃ obtained is:

    • A. 126 g
    • B. 63 g
    • C. 42 g
    • D. 31.5 g
  6. Q11. In the Solvay process the overall reaction is CaCO₃ + 2NaCl → Na₂CO₃ + CaCl₂ (Na₂CO₃ = 106, NaCl = 58.5). The mass of NaCl needed to make 530 kg of Na₂CO₃ at 100% efficiency is:

    • A. 1170 kg
    • B. 585 kg
    • C. 117 kg
    • D. 292.5 kg
  7. Q12. Urea is made from ammonia and CO₂ via 2NH₃ + CO₂ → NH₂COONH₄ → CO(NH₂)₂ + H₂O (urea = 60 g mol⁻¹). From 34 g of NH₃ at an overall yield of 80%, the mass of urea is:

    • A. 60 g
    • B. 48 g
    • C. 30 g
    • D. 96 g
  8. Q13. Ammonium nitrate (NH₄NO₃, N = 35% by mass) and urea (CO(NH₂)₂, N = 46.67% by mass) are used as fertilisers. The mass of urea supplying the same amount of nitrogen as 80 kg of ammonium nitrate is:

    • A. 60 kg
    • B. 107 kg
    • C. 46 kg
    • D. 80 kg
  9. Q14. Superphosphate is made by treating phosphate rock, Ca₃(PO₄)₂, with sulphuric acid. The main purpose of this step is to:

    • A. precipitate the calcium of the rock as CaCO₃
    • B. raise the nitrogen content of the phosphate rock
    • C. remove the phosphate from the rock as the gas PH₃
    • D. turn insoluble phosphate into soluble Ca(H₂PO₄)₂ for plants
  10. Q15. During the electrolytic refining of copper, the precious metals silver and gold present in crude copper:

    • A. fall to the bottom of the cell as anode mud
    • B. dissolve in the electrolyte and plate onto the cathode
    • C. are deposited on the anode surface
    • D. are oxidised and remain in solution as ions
  11. Q16. Zinc carbonate is calcined: ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂ (Zn = 65, C = 12, O = 16). The mass of ZnO obtained from 250 g of ZnCO₃ is:

    • A. 125 g
    • B. 162 g
    • C. 204 g
    • D. 81 g
  12. Q17. In the Hall–Héroult process Al³⁺ is reduced at the cathode. The quantity of electricity needed to deposit 54 g of aluminium (Al = 27; F = 96 500 C mol⁻¹) is:

    • A. 1.16 × 10⁶ C
    • B. 2.90 × 10⁵ C
    • C. 5.79 × 10⁵ C
    • D. 1.93 × 10⁵ C
  13. Q18. Duralumin, a light and strong alloy used in aircraft, consists mainly of aluminium with small amounts of:

    • A. nickel, chromium and carbon
    • B. copper, magnesium and manganese
    • C. silver, gold and copper
    • D. zinc, tin and lead
  14. Q19. Which of the following is regarded as a transition element in the strict sense (an atom or one of its common ions has an incomplete d subshell)?

    • A. Cd
    • B. Cu
    • C. Zn
    • D. Hg
  15. Q20. Copper(II) sulphate solution is blue, but anhydrous copper(I) chloride is white. The reason is that:

    • A. Cu⁺ has an empty 3d subshell
    • B. chloride ions absorb all visible light
    • C. Cu⁺ has a 3d⁹ configuration with one unpaired electron
    • D. Cu⁺ has a 3d¹⁰ configuration, allowing no d–d transition
  16. Q21. In the cyanide process for gold, dicyanoaurate is reduced by zinc: 2[Au(CN)₂]⁻ + Zn → 2Au + [Zn(CN)₄]²⁻ (Zn = 65). The mass of zinc needed to recover 1.0 mol of gold is:

    • A. 65 g
    • B. 130 g
    • C. 16.3 g
    • D. 32.5 g
  17. Q22. In the manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite, sodium chromate is converted into sodium dichromate by:

    • A. oxidising it with chlorine
    • B. reducing it with sulphur dioxide
    • C. acidifying the solution with sulphuric acid
    • D. heating it with lime
  18. Q23. The green isomer of CrCl₃·6H₂O is [Cr(H₂O)₄Cl₂]Cl·2H₂O. On adding excess AgNO₃(aq) to one mole of it, the number of moles of AgCl precipitated is:

    • A. 0 mol
    • B. 2 mol
    • C. 1 mol
    • D. 3 mol
  19. Q24. What mass of green vitriol, FeSO₄·7H₂O (molar mass 278 g mol⁻¹; Fe = 56), contains 5.6 g of iron?

    • A. 2.78 g
    • B. 55.6 g
    • C. 15.2 g
    • D. 27.8 g
  20. Q25. A 0.10 mol sample of CuSO₄ in aqueous solution is treated with excess KI: 2Cu²⁺ + 4I⁻ → 2CuI + I₂. The amount of iodine liberated is:

    • A. 0.025 mol
    • B. 0.10 mol
    • C. 0.20 mol
    • D. 0.050 mol
  21. Q26. Which of the following hydroxides dissolves in excess of dilute (about 1 M) aqueous NaOH as well as in dilute hydrochloric acid?

    • A. Ni(OH)₂
    • B. Fe(OH)₃
    • C. Cu(OH)₂
    • D. Zn(OH)₂
  22. Q27. 32 g of sulphur (S = 32) is converted to H₂SO₄ by the contact process (S → SO₂ → SO₃ → H₂SO₄) with an overall yield of 90% (H₂SO₄ = 98 g mol⁻¹). The mass of acid obtained is:

    • A. 44.1 g
    • B. 88.2 g
    • C. 108.9 g
    • D. 98.0 g
  23. Q28. The cathode in the electrolytic refining of copper is a thin sheet of:

    • A. carbon, on which hydrogen gas is liberated
    • B. pure copper, where Cu²⁺ from the CuSO₄ is deposited
    • C. impure copper, which is slowly consumed during the process
    • D. platinum, which dissolves slowly in the electrolyte
  24. Q29. Which of the following halides of silver dissolves in dilute aqueous ammonia?

    • A. AgI
    • B. AgBr
    • C. Ag₂S
    • D. AgCl
  25. Q30. Among the following, the catalyst used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils to make ghee is:

    • A. platinum–rhodium gauze
    • B. vanadium(V) oxide
    • C. iron with promoters
    • D. finely divided nickel