ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 3)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 3): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. The spin-only magnetic moment of Fe³⁺ (Z = 26) in Bohr magnetons is closest to:

    • A. 5.92 ✓
    • B. 4.90
    • C. 3.87
    • D. 2.83

    Answer: A. 5.92

    Explanation: Fe³⁺ = 3d⁵: five unpaired electrons; μ = √(n(n+2)) = √35 = 5.92 BM.

  2. Q2. Which of the following aqueous ions is expected to be coloured?

    • A. Sc³⁺
    • B. Zn²⁺
    • C. Ti³⁺ ✓
    • D. Cu⁺

    Answer: C. Ti³⁺

    Explanation: Ti³⁺ is 3d¹ (d–d transition possible); Sc³⁺ is d⁰ and Zn²⁺ and Cu⁺ are d¹⁰.

  3. Q3. The oxidation state of nickel in the carbonyl complex [Ni(CO)₄] is:

    • A. +2
    • B. +4
    • C. 0 ✓
    • D. −4

    Answer: C. 0

    Explanation: CO is a neutral ligand and the complex is neutral, so Ni = 0.

  4. Q4. 0.01 mol of [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ is dissolved in water and excess AgNO₃ is added. The moles of AgCl precipitated are:

    • A. 0.00
    • B. 0.03
    • C. 0.01
    • D. 0.02 ✓

    Answer: D. 0.02

    Explanation: Only the two Cl⁻ outside the coordination sphere are free: 0.02 mol AgCl.

  5. Q5. The effective atomic number (EAN) of iron in K₄[Fe(CN)₆] is:

    • A. 34
    • B. 26
    • C. 36 ✓
    • D. 24

    Answer: C. 36

    Explanation: EAN = Z − oxidation state + 2 × CN = 26 − 2 + 12 = 36, equal to Kr.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. The complex [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] (square planar) exists as:

    • A. two geometrical isomers, cis and trans
    • B. three structural isomers
    • C. a single isomer only
    • D. two optical isomers
  2. Q7. The IUPAC name of K₃[Fe(CN)₆] is:

    • A. tripotassium hexacyanide ferrate(II)
    • B. potassium ferricyanide(II)
    • C. potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III)
    • D. potassium hexacyanoiron(II)
  3. Q8. Ethylenediamine (en) is a:

    • A. tridentate ligand
    • B. bidentate ligand
    • C. monodentate ligand
    • D. hexadentate ligand
  4. Q9. [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ is diamagnetic whereas [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is paramagnetic because:

    • A. CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand, giving a low-spin d⁶ complex with all electrons paired
    • B. water has no lone pair available to bond with iron
    • C. CN⁻ is a weak-field ligand, so the electrons stay unpaired
    • D. iron has different oxidation states in the two complexes
  5. Q10. The colour of many transition metal complexes arises because:

    • A. d electrons are promoted between split d levels (d–d transitions) absorbing visible light
    • B. electrons are lost from the ligands
    • C. the complex absorbs infrared only
    • D. s electrons are removed
  6. Q11. In the blast furnace, the slag formed removes the silica impurity of iron ore as:

    • A. calcium carbonate
    • B. calcium silicate
    • C. iron silicate
    • D. carbon monoxide
  7. Q12. The main reducing agent in the blast furnace for reducing Fe₂O₃ in the upper and middle zone is:

    • A. carbon dioxide
    • B. carbon monoxide
    • C. hydrogen
    • D. silicon
  8. Q13. Rusting of iron is prevented by the attachment of a magnesium block to a ship's hull because:

    • A. Mg is less reactive than Fe so it protects the hull
    • B. Mg forms a paint-like protective coating on the hull
    • C. Mg lowers the temperature of the surrounding sea water
    • D. Mg is more easily oxidised than Fe, so it acts as a sacrificial anode
  9. Q14. Galvanised iron (zinc coating) continues to resist rusting even when the coating is scratched because:

    • A. the exposed iron is covered by Zn oxide only
    • B. Zn forms an alloy with Fe instantly
    • C. Zn is less reactive than Fe
    • D. Zn is more reactive than Fe and oxidises first (sacrificial protection)
  10. Q15. The colour change when a few drops of NaOH are added to orange potassium dichromate solution is:

    • A. orange to green
    • B. orange to colourless
    • C. orange to yellow
    • D. orange to purple
  11. Q16. The oxidation state of chromium in the dichromate ion Cr₂O₇²⁻ is:

    • A. +6
    • B. +7
    • C. +12
    • D. +3
  12. Q17. The equivalent mass of KMnO₄ (molar mass 158) in acidic medium (MnO₄⁻ → Mn²⁺) is:

    • A. 158
    • B. 31.6
    • C. 79
    • D. 52.7
  13. Q18. The number of electrons gained by MnO₄⁻ when it is reduced in neutral medium to MnO₂ is:

    • A. 5
    • B. 7
    • C. 3
    • D. 1
  14. Q19. What amount of KMnO₄ in acidic medium is needed to oxidise 0.1 mol of oxalate ion C₂O₄²⁻ completely to CO₂? (2MnO₄⁻ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O)

    • A. 0.25 mol
    • B. 0.02 mol
    • C. 0.1 mol
    • D. 0.04 mol
  15. Q20. The common catalyst and temperature in the Haber process for ammonia are:

    • A. Ni at 150 °C
    • B. Pt–Rh gauze at 800 °C
    • C. finely divided iron with Mo promoter at about 450 °C
    • D. V₂O₅ at 450 °C
  16. Q21. The percentage of nitrogen by mass in urea, CO(NH₂)₂ (C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, H = 1), is:

    • A. 23.3%
    • B. 35.0%
    • C. 46.7%
    • D. 28.0%
  17. Q22. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium sulphate (NH₄)₂SO₄ (N = 14, H = 1, S = 32, O = 16) is closest to:

    • A. 10.6%
    • B. 21.2%
    • C. 28.0%
    • D. 42.4%
  18. Q23. Superphosphate of lime is manufactured by treating phosphate rock Ca₃(PO₄)₂ with:

    • A. sulphuric acid
    • B. hydrochloric acid only
    • C. nitric acid only
    • D. ammonia
  19. Q24. Gypsum is added to Portland cement clinker in small amounts in order to:

    • A. increase the strength after one year
    • B. slow the setting of cement
    • C. give a pure white colour
    • D. increase the ability to colour
  20. Q25. The raw materials used for manufacturing Portland cement are mainly:

    • A. limestone and clay
    • B. quartz and sodium carbonate
    • C. gypsum and coke
    • D. bauxite and cryolite
  21. Q26. An octane number of 100 is assigned to:

    • A. benzene
    • B. n-heptane
    • C. n-octane
    • D. iso-octane (2,2,4-trimethylpentane)
  22. Q27. Among the petroleum fractions obtained by fractional distillation, the one with the highest boiling range is:

    • A. petrol (gasoline)
    • B. kerosene
    • C. bitumen/residue
    • D. LPG
  23. Q28. Normal rainwater has a pH of about 5.6 due to dissolved:

    • A. NO₂
    • B. CO₂
    • C. SO₂
    • D. O₃
  24. Q29. Catalytic converters in car exhausts use platinum–rhodium to:

    • A. remove lead from petrol
    • B. convert CO₂ to O₂
    • C. convert CO, NOx and unburnt hydrocarbons to CO₂, N₂ and H₂O
    • D. produce more NOx
  25. Q30. The sulphite process of making paper pulp uses:

    • A. hydrochloric acid
    • B. calcium (or magnesium) bisulphite solution
    • C. sodium hydroxide only
    • D. chlorine gas only