ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 2)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Transition Elements and Industrial Chemistry (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. The spin-only magnetic moment of Cr³⁺ (Z of Cr = 24) is about:

    • A. 1.73 BM
    • B. 4.90 BM
    • C. 2.83 BM
    • D. 3.87 BM ✓

    Answer: D. 3.87 BM

    Explanation: Cr³⁺ is 3d³ with n = 3 unpaired electrons; μ = √(n(n+2)) = √15 ≈ 3.87 BM.

  2. Q2. A divalent 3d-metal ion has a spin-only magnetic moment of 2.83 BM. The ion is:

    • A. Zn²⁺
    • B. Mn²⁺
    • C. Cu²⁺
    • D. Ni²⁺ ✓

    Answer: D. Ni²⁺

    Explanation: √(n(n+2)) = 2.83 gives n = 2 unpaired electrons; Ni²⁺ (3d⁸) has two. Mn²⁺ has 5, Cu²⁺ has 1 and Zn²⁺ has 0.

  3. Q3. Zinc, cadmium and mercury are not regarded as typical transition elements because:

    • A. They form coloured compounds
    • B. They have completely filled d subshells in the atom and in their common ions ✓
    • C. They are non-metals
    • D. They have no s electrons

    Answer: B. They have completely filled d subshells in the atom and in their common ions

    Explanation: Zn²⁺, Cd²⁺ and Hg²⁺ are d¹⁰; with no partly filled d orbitals they are colourless, diamagnetic and show essentially one oxidation state.

  4. Q4. Transition metals and their compounds are good catalysts mainly because they:

    • A. Can show variable oxidation states and provide surfaces for adsorption ✓
    • B. Are all strongly coloured
    • C. Are highly reactive towards water
    • D. Have very low melting points

    Answer: A. Can show variable oxidation states and provide surfaces for adsorption

    Explanation: Variable oxidation states allow easy electron transfer (e.g. V₂O₅ in the contact process), and vacant d orbitals help adsorb reactants on the surface.

  5. Q5. The square planar complex [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂] exists in two forms, one of which (cisplatin) is an anticancer drug. These two forms are:

    • A. Optical isomers
    • B. Cis and trans geometrical isomers ✓
    • C. Ionization isomers
    • D. Linkage isomers

    Answer: B. Cis and trans geometrical isomers

    Explanation: In a square planar MA₂B₂ complex the two Cl ligands can be adjacent (cis) or opposite (trans), giving two geometrical isomers.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. The complex ion [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ has a coordination number and geometry of:

    • A. 4, tetrahedral
    • B. 2, bent
    • C. 6, octahedral
    • D. 2, linear
  2. Q7. EDTA⁴⁻ forms very stable complexes with metal ions because it is a:

    • A. Hexadentate chelating ligand
    • B. Bidentate ligand
    • C. Neutral ligand
    • D. Monodentate ligand
  3. Q8. The complex [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is diamagnetic. Its geometry and hybridization are:

    • A. Linear, sp
    • B. Square planar, dsp²
    • C. Octahedral, d²sp³
    • D. Tetrahedral, sp³
  4. Q9. How many ions are produced in solution when one formula unit of [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ dissolves?

    • A. 4
    • B. 7
    • C. 3
    • D. 2
  5. Q10. In the blast furnace, the main reducing agent that converts iron oxides into iron is:

    • A. Hydrogen
    • B. Limestone
    • C. Carbon monoxide
    • D. Silica
  6. Q11. Rust is best described as:

    • A. FeO
    • B. Hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe₂O₃·xH₂O
    • C. Fe₃O₄
    • D. FeCO₃
  7. Q12. A tin-plated iron can rusts faster than unplated iron once the tin coating is scratched because:

    • A. Tin is more reactive than iron
    • B. Tin dissolves in water
    • C. Iron is more reactive than tin, so it becomes the anode and corrodes
    • D. Tin catalyses the formation of rust
  8. Q13. When KOH is added to an orange solution of K₂Cr₂O₇, the solution turns yellow because:

    • A. Cr₂O₇²⁻ is reduced to Cr³⁺
    • B. Cr₂O₇²⁻ is converted into CrO₄²⁻
    • C. K₂O is formed
    • D. Chromium is oxidized to +7
  9. Q14. In neutral or weakly alkaline solution, MnO₄⁻ is reduced to MnO₂. The number of electrons gained per MnO₄⁻ ion is:

    • A. 1
    • B. 2
    • C. 5
    • D. 3
  10. Q15. The equivalent mass of KMnO₄ (M = 158) when it acts as an oxidizing agent in acidic medium is:

    • A. 79
    • B. 158
    • C. 52.7
    • D. 31.6
  11. Q16. What volume of 0.02 M KMnO₄ is needed to oxidize 25 cm³ of 0.1 M FeSO₄ in acidic solution?

    • A. 125 cm³
    • B. 12.5 cm³
    • C. 50 cm³
    • D. 25 cm³
  12. Q17. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium sulphate, (NH₄)₂SO₄, is about:

    • A. 35.0%
    • B. 46.7%
    • C. 21.2%
    • D. 10.6%
  13. Q18. Single superphosphate fertilizer, made by treating rock phosphate with H₂SO₄, is a mixture of:

    • A. H₃PO₄ and CaO
    • B. Ca(H₂PO₄)₂ and CaSO₄
    • C. NH₄H₂PO₄ and (NH₄)₂SO₄
    • D. Ca₃(PO₄)₂ and CaCO₃
  14. Q19. The two main raw materials for the manufacture of Portland cement are:

    • A. Limestone (calcareous) and clay (argillaceous)
    • B. Gypsum and coke
    • C. Bauxite and iron ore
    • D. Sand and soda ash
  15. Q20. The major component of ordinary Portland cement by mass is:

    • A. Silica (SiO₂), about 60–67%
    • B. Iron oxide, about 30%
    • C. Lime (CaO), about 60–67%
    • D. Alumina (Al₂O₃), about 40%
  16. Q21. The main chemical constituent of paper pulp is:

    • A. Protein
    • B. Cellulose
    • C. Starch
    • D. Lignin
  17. Q22. In petroleum refining, catalytic reforming is used to:

    • A. Break heavy oils into lighter fractions
    • B. Remove sulphur compounds
    • C. Convert straight-chain alkanes into branched alkanes and aromatics with higher octane numbers
    • D. Separate crude oil into fractions by boiling point
  18. Q23. Tetraethyl lead was formerly added to petrol in order to:

    • A. Reduce knocking in engines
    • B. Raise its boiling point
    • C. Lower its density
    • D. Remove sulphur
  19. Q24. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) harm the environment mainly because in the stratosphere they:

    • A. Absorb all ultraviolet light
    • B. Produce acid rain
    • C. Release chlorine atoms that destroy ozone
    • D. Increase the amount of oxygen
  20. Q25. Carbon monoxide is poisonous because it:

    • A. Reacts with water in the lungs to form an acid
    • B. Forms a stable complex with haemoglobin and prevents oxygen transport
    • C. Destroys red blood cells
    • D. Is a strong oxidizing agent
  21. Q26. What mass of iron is present in 116 g of magnetite, Fe₃O₄ (Fe = 56, O = 16)?

    • A. 84 g
    • B. 56 g
    • C. 72 g
    • D. 112 g
  22. Q27. Assuming complete conversion, the mass of NH₃ formed from 6 g of H₂ and excess N₂ (N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃) is:

    • A. 17 g
    • B. 68 g
    • C. 51 g
    • D. 34 g
  23. Q28. The heating elements of electric heaters are commonly made of nichrome, an alloy of:

    • A. Nickel and chromium
    • B. Nickel and copper
    • C. Iron and carbon only
    • D. Chromium and cobalt
  24. Q29. In the octahedral complex [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻, the oxidation state of iron and the number of unpaired electrons (strong-field ligand) are:

    • A. +6 and 0
    • B. +3 and 5
    • C. +2 and 0
    • D. +3 and 1
  25. Q30. Which statement about the d-block elements is correct?

    • A. They show only one oxidation state
    • B. Most form coloured ions and complex compounds
    • C. Their atomic radii increase sharply across a period
    • D. They have low densities and low melting points