ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Thermochemistry, Equilibrium and Kinetics (Set 2)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Thermochemistry, Equilibrium and Kinetics (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Given enthalpies of combustion (kJ mol⁻¹): C(graphite) −393.5, H₂(g) −285.8, CH₄(g) −890.3, the standard enthalpy of formation of CH₄ is:

    • A. −211.0 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹ ✓
    • C. −965.1 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. +74.8 kJ mol⁻¹

    Answer: B. −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹

    Explanation: ΔHf = ΔHc(C) + 2ΔHc(H₂) − ΔHc(CH₄) = −393.5 − 571.6 + 890.3 = −74.8 kJ mol⁻¹.

  2. Q2. 50 cm³ of 1.0 M HCl is mixed with 50 cm³ of 1.0 M NaOH and the temperature rises by 6.8°C. Taking the mass of solution as 100 g and c = 4.18 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹, the enthalpy of neutralization is about:

    • A. −56.8 kJ mol⁻¹ ✓
    • B. −113.7 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. −28.4 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. −2.84 kJ mol⁻¹

    Answer: A. −56.8 kJ mol⁻¹

    Explanation: q = 100 × 4.18 × 6.8 = 2842 J for 0.05 mol of water formed; ΔH = −2842/0.05 = −56.8 kJ mol⁻¹.

  3. Q3. A system absorbs 50 J of heat and does 20 J of work on its surroundings. The change in its internal energy is:

    • A. −30 J
    • B. −70 J
    • C. +70 J
    • D. +30 J ✓

    Answer: D. +30 J

    Explanation: First law: ΔE = q + w = (+50) + (−20) = +30 J (work done by the system is negative).

  4. Q4. A bomb calorimeter measures the heat of reaction at constant volume. This heat is equal to:

    • A. ΔH
    • B. ΔH + PΔV
    • C. ΔE ✓
    • D. Zero for gaseous reactions

    Answer: C. ΔE

    Explanation: At constant volume no pressure–volume work is done, so q(v) = ΔE; ΔH is then obtained from ΔH = ΔE + ΔnRT.

  5. Q5. Which statement about the standard enthalpy of combustion is correct?

    • A. It is zero for hydrocarbons
    • B. It refers to burning in a limited supply of air
    • C. It is always positive
    • D. It is always negative because combustion is exothermic ✓

    Answer: D. It is always negative because combustion is exothermic

    Explanation: Enthalpy of combustion is the heat released when 1 mol of a substance burns completely in oxygen; heat is always given out.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Dissolving NH₄Cl in water makes the solution cold, yet the process occurs spontaneously. This shows that:

    • A. Spontaneity cannot be judged from the sign of ΔH alone
    • B. Dissolution is always exothermic
    • C. All endothermic processes are non-spontaneous
    • D. Heat flows from cold to hot
  2. Q7. 1.0 mol each of H₂ and I₂ are heated in a 1 dm³ flask. At equilibrium 1.6 mol of HI is present (H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI). The value of Kc is:

    • A. 8
    • B. 40
    • C. 16
    • D. 64
  3. Q8. For 2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g), the relation between Kp and Kc is:

    • A. Kp = Kc
    • B. Kp = Kc(RT)⁻¹
    • C. Kp = Kc(RT)²
    • D. Kp = Kc(RT)
  4. Q9. For a reaction mixture, the reaction quotient Q is found to be greater than Kc. The reaction will:

    • A. Already be at equilibrium
    • B. Proceed in the reverse direction until Q = Kc
    • C. Proceed in the forward direction
    • D. Stop completely
  5. Q10. For H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), Kc = 49 at a certain temperature. At the same temperature, Kc for ½H₂(g) + ½I₂(g) ⇌ HI(g) is:

    • A. 24.5
    • B. 7
    • C. 1/49
    • D. 49
  6. Q11. An inert gas such as argon is added to the equilibrium N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ at constant volume. The equilibrium:

    • A. Shifts towards N₂ and H₂
    • B. Constant Kc doubles
    • C. Shifts towards NH₃
    • D. Is not disturbed
  7. Q12. For an exothermic equilibrium, raising the temperature:

    • A. Decreases K and shifts equilibrium backward
    • B. Increases K and shifts equilibrium forward
    • C. Leaves K unchanged
    • D. Increases the rate of the forward reaction only
  8. Q13. The pH of a 0.01 M NaOH solution at 25°C is:

    • A. 10
    • B. 12
    • C. 2
    • D. 13
  9. Q14. The pH of a 1 × 10⁻⁸ M HCl solution at 25°C is closest to:

    • A. 7.0
    • B. 6.0
    • C. 6.98
    • D. 8.0
  10. Q15. The pH of a 0.05 M H₂SO₄ solution (assume complete ionization) is:

    • A. 1.0
    • B. 1.3
    • C. 0.05
    • D. 2.0
  11. Q16. At 50°C, Kw is greater than 1 × 10⁻¹⁴. Pure water at this temperature has:

    • A. pH less than 7 and is acidic
    • B. pH more than 7 and is basic
    • C. pH 7 and is neutral
    • D. pH less than 7 and is still neutral
  12. Q17. The Ksp of AgBr is 4.9 × 10⁻¹³ at 25°C. Its solubility in pure water is:

    • A. 4.9 × 10⁻¹³ mol dm⁻³
    • B. 2.45 × 10⁻¹³ mol dm⁻³
    • C. 7.0 × 10⁻⁶ mol dm⁻³
    • D. 7.0 × 10⁻⁷ mol dm⁻³
  13. Q18. A precipitate of a sparingly soluble salt forms when:

    • A. The ionic product exceeds Ksp
    • B. The ionic product is less than Ksp
    • C. Ksp is greater than 1
    • D. The ionic product equals zero
  14. Q19. A buffer contains equal concentrations of NH₃ and NH₄Cl. If pKb of NH₃ is 4.74, the pH of the buffer at 25°C is:

    • A. 7.00
    • B. 9.26
    • C. 10.26
    • D. 4.74
  15. Q20. The degree of ionization of a 0.01 M weak acid with Ka = 1 × 10⁻⁶ is about:

    • A. 10%
    • B. 1%
    • C. 0.1%
    • D. 0.01%
  16. Q21. For 2N₂O₅ → 4NO₂ + O₂, if N₂O₅ disappears at 0.02 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹, NO₂ is formed at:

    • A. 0.08 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
    • B. 0.02 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
    • C. 0.04 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
    • D. 0.01 mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
  17. Q22. For A + B → products: doubling [A] at constant [B] doubles the rate, and doubling [B] at constant [A] makes the rate four times larger. The overall order is:

    • A. 3
    • B. 1
    • C. 2
    • D. 4
  18. Q23. The units of the rate constant of a second-order reaction are:

    • A. mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹
    • B. dm³ mol⁻¹ s⁻¹
    • C. s⁻¹
    • D. dm⁶ mol⁻² s⁻¹
  19. Q24. A first-order decomposition has a half-life of 15 min. Starting with 80 g of reactant, the mass left after 1 hour is:

    • A. 20 g
    • B. 10 g
    • C. 5 g
    • D. 2.5 g
  20. Q25. A first-order reaction has a half-life of 5 min. About how long will it take for 99.9% of the reactant to react?

    • A. 25 min
    • B. 50 min
    • C. 100 min
    • D. 15 min
  21. Q26. For a reaction, the activation energy of the forward reaction is 80 kJ mol⁻¹ and that of the backward reaction is 120 kJ mol⁻¹. The ΔH of the forward reaction is:

    • A. −200 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. −40 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. +40 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. +200 kJ mol⁻¹
  22. Q27. Arsenic compounds present as impurities in SO₂ reduce the activity of the platinum catalyst in the contact process. This effect is called:

    • A. Autocatalysis
    • B. Promotion
    • C. Negative catalysis by an inhibitor added on purpose
    • D. Catalytic poisoning
  23. Q28. The specific rate constant k of a reaction changes when:

    • A. The reaction time is increased
    • B. The volume of the vessel is changed at constant temperature
    • C. The temperature is changed
    • D. The concentration of reactants is changed
  24. Q29. The rate of the reaction CH₃COOC₂H₅ + NaOH → CH₃COONa + C₂H₅OH can conveniently be followed by measuring the change in:

    • A. Colour of the solution
    • B. Volume of gas evolved
    • C. Electrical conductance, as fast OH⁻ ions are replaced by slower CH₃COO⁻ ions
    • D. Optical rotation
  25. Q30. For the equilibrium H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), increasing the total pressure by compressing the mixture:

    • A. Shifts the equilibrium towards HI
    • B. Does not change the equilibrium position
    • C. Shifts the equilibrium towards H₂ and I₂
    • D. Changes the value of Kc