ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Stoichiometry and Atomic Structure (Set 4)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Stoichiometry and Atomic Structure (Set 4): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A 0.60 g sample of an organic compound containing only C, H and O gives 0.88 g CO₂ and 0.36 g H₂O on complete combustion. What is its empirical formula?

    • A. CH₄O
    • B. C₂H₄O
    • C. CH₂O ✓
    • D. C₂H₂O

    Answer: C. CH₂O

    Explanation: C = 0.88×12/44 = 0.24 g (0.02 mol); H = 0.36×2/18 = 0.04 g (0.04 mol); O = 0.60 − 0.28 = 0.32 g (0.02 mol). Ratio 1 : 2 : 1 gives CH₂O.

  2. Q2. A 2.00 g mixture of CaCO₃ and inert sand loses 0.44 g in mass when strongly heated until constant mass. What is the percentage of CaCO₃ in the mixture? (Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

    • A. 25%
    • B. 22%
    • C. 50% ✓
    • D. 44%

    Answer: C. 50%

    Explanation: Mass lost is CO₂: 0.44/44 = 0.01 mol, so 0.01 mol CaCO₃ = 1.00 g. Percentage = 1.00/2.00 × 100 = 50%.

  3. Q3. In the reaction 4NH₃ + 5O₂ → 4NO + 6H₂O, 3.4 g of NH₃ is mixed with 4.0 g of O₂. What mass of NO can form at most? (N = 14, H = 1, O = 16)

    • A. 3.75 g
    • B. 1.5 g
    • C. 6.0 g
    • D. 3.0 g ✓

    Answer: D. 3.0 g

    Explanation: NH₃ = 0.2 mol needs 0.25 mol O₂, but only 0.125 mol O₂ is present, so O₂ limits. NO = 0.125 × 4/5 = 0.10 mol = 3.0 g.

  4. Q4. A drop of water has a mass of 0.09 g. Approximately how many hydrogen atoms does it contain? (H = 1, O = 16, Nₐ = 6.02×10²³)

    • A. 9.0×10²¹
    • B. 6.0×10²¹ ✓
    • C. 3.0×10²¹
    • D. 1.2×10²²

    Answer: B. 6.0×10²¹

    Explanation: 0.09 g / 18 g mol⁻¹ = 0.005 mol of H₂O. Each molecule has 2 H atoms, so 0.010 mol × 6.02×10²³ ≈ 6.0×10²¹.

  5. Q5. An element X has two isotopes, ⁶³X and ⁶⁵X, and its average relative atomic mass is 63.5. What is the percentage abundance of ⁶³X?

    • A. 63.5%
    • B. 50%
    • C. 75% ✓
    • D. 25%

    Answer: C. 75%

    Explanation: Let abundance of ⁶³X be x: 63x + 65(1 − x) = 63.5 gives 65 − 2x = 63.5, so x = 0.75, i.e. 75%.

The other 25 questions

Take the timed test (free, no sign-up) to see your score and the answer and explanation for every question.

  1. Q6. In a mass spectrometer all ions enter the same magnetic field with the same speed. Which ion is deflected through the path of smallest radius (most strongly)?

    • A. ²⁰Ne²⁺
    • B. ²²Ne⁺
    • C. ²²Ne²⁺
    • D. ²⁰Ne⁺
  2. Q7. How does the radius of the third Bohr orbit of He⁺ compare with the radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen?

    • A. 1.5 times larger
    • B. 9 times larger
    • C. 2.25 times larger
    • D. 4.5 times larger
  3. Q8. What is the energy of the electron in the second Bohr orbit of Li²⁺? (Use Eₙ = −13.6 Z²/n² eV)

    • A. −122.4 eV
    • B. −30.6 eV
    • C. −10.2 eV
    • D. −3.4 eV
  4. Q9. What is the ratio (longest wavelength of the Lyman series) : (series-limit wavelength of the Balmer series) in the hydrogen spectrum?

    • A. 3 : 1
    • B. 4 : 9
    • C. 1 : 4
    • D. 1 : 3
  5. Q10. An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths λ(electron) / λ(proton) is closest to (mass of proton ≈ 1836 × mass of electron)

    • A. 1/1836
    • B. 43
    • C. 1/43
    • D. 1836
  6. Q11. How many radial (spherical) nodes does a 4p orbital have?

    • A. 4
    • B. 1
    • C. 3
    • D. 2
  7. Q12. What is the maximum number of electrons in one atom that can have n = 3 and mₗ = +1?

    • A. 4
    • B. 8
    • C. 6
    • D. 2
  8. Q13. Which of the following is NOT isoelectronic with argon?

    • A. Cl⁻
    • B. K⁺
    • C. Ti⁴⁺
    • D. Mg²⁺
  9. Q14. What is the ground-state electronic configuration of the Cr²⁺ ion? (Z for Cr = 24)

    • A. [Ar] 3d² 4s²
    • B. [Ar] 3d⁴
    • C. [Ar] 3d³ 4s¹
    • D. [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s²
  10. Q15. The Kα X-ray frequency of an element is 4 times that of sodium (Z = 11). Using Moseley's law √ν = a(Z − b) with b = 1, the atomic number of the element is

    • A. 21
    • B. 41
    • C. 22
    • D. 44
  11. Q16. J. J. Thomson found the same e/m value for cathode-ray particles whatever the gas or the cathode metal used. What did this indicate?

    • A. Cathode rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation
    • B. The nucleus contains neutrons in every atom
    • C. Atoms of all elements have equal mass
    • D. Electrons are a common constituent of all atoms
  12. Q17. A hydrated salt MgSO₄·xH₂O contains 51.2% water by mass. Find x. (Mg = 24, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1)

    • A. 10
    • B. 5
    • C. 7
    • D. 6
  13. Q18. 10 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon is burned in excess oxygen and gives 40 mL of CO₂ and 50 mL of water vapour, all measured at the same temperature and pressure. The hydrocarbon is

    • A. C₅H₁₀
    • B. C₄H₁₀
    • C. C₈H₂₀
    • D. C₄H₈
  14. Q19. Sulphur (32 g) is burnt to SO₂ with 90% yield, and all the SO₂ obtained is then converted to SO₃ with 80% yield. What mass of SO₃ is obtained? (S = 32, O = 16)

    • A. 72.0 g
    • B. 57.6 g
    • C. 64.0 g
    • D. 80.0 g
  15. Q20. Which sample contains the largest number of atoms? (H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16)

    • A. 88 g of CO₂
    • B. 36 g of H₂O
    • C. 16 g of CH₄
    • D. 34 g of NH₃
  16. Q21. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are present in ⁵⁶₂₆Fe³⁺?

    • A. 29, 27, 26
    • B. 26, 30, 29
    • C. 26, 30, 23
    • D. 26, 56, 23
  17. Q22. Which set of quantum numbers (n, l, mₗ, mₛ) is permitted for an electron in an atom?

    • A. (2, 2, 1, +½)
    • B. (4, 3, +3, 0)
    • C. (4, 2, −2, −½)
    • D. (3, 1, −2, +½)
  18. Q23. The first line of the Balmer series (n = 3 → 2) of hydrogen is calculated with R = 1.097×10⁷ m⁻¹. Its wavelength is about

    • A. 486 nm
    • B. 410 nm
    • C. 434 nm
    • D. 656 nm
  19. Q24. In the Bohr model, the speed of the electron is proportional to Z/n. How does the speed of the electron in the second orbit of He⁺ compare with that in the first orbit of hydrogen?

    • A. Half as fast
    • B. Twice as fast
    • C. They are equal
    • D. Four times as fast
  20. Q25. The mass of a single atom of an element is 1.99×10⁻²³ g. Its molar mass is about (Nₐ = 6.02×10²³)

    • A. 24 g mol⁻¹
    • B. 1.99 g mol⁻¹
    • C. 6 g mol⁻¹
    • D. 12 g mol⁻¹
  21. Q26. 50 mL of 0.10 M BaCl₂ is mixed with 30 mL of 0.10 M Na₂SO₄. Assuming complete precipitation of BaSO₄, what is the concentration of Ba²⁺ left in the 80 mL of solution?

    • A. 0.0125 M
    • B. 0.025 M
    • C. 0.040 M
    • D. 0.0625 M
  22. Q27. Positive (canal) rays from different gases are compared. Which gas gives positive rays with the highest e/m ratio?

    • A. Argon
    • B. Helium
    • C. Nitrogen
    • D. Hydrogen
  23. Q28. 6.5 g of a divalent metal M reacts with excess dilute acid to give 2.24 L of H₂ at STP (22.4 L mol⁻¹). The atomic mass of M is

    • A. 65
    • B. 130
    • C. 6.5
    • D. 32.5
  24. Q29. The speed of an electron is uncertain by 1×10⁵ m s⁻¹. Using Δx·Δp ≥ h/4π, the minimum uncertainty in its position is about (h = 6.63×10⁻³⁴ J s, mₑ = 9.11×10⁻³¹ kg)

    • A. 5.8×10⁻¹⁰ m
    • B. 5.8×10⁻¹² m
    • C. 5.8×10⁻⁹ m
    • D. 7.3×10⁻¹⁰ m
  25. Q30. The ground-state nitrogen atom (1s² 2s² 2p³) has its three 2p electrons in separate orbitals with parallel spins. Its total spin quantum number S (sum of mₛ values) is

    • A. 3/2
    • B. 1/2
    • C. 3
    • D. 1