ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Stoichiometry and Atomic Structure (Set 2)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Stoichiometry and Atomic Structure (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. How many molecules are present in 4.4 g of CO₂ (C = 12, O = 16)?

    • A. 6.022 × 10²² ✓
    • B. 1.204 × 10²³
    • C. 3.011 × 10²²
    • D. 6.022 × 10²³

    Answer: A. 6.022 × 10²²

    Explanation: Moles = 4.4/44 = 0.1 mol; molecules = 0.1 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 6.022 × 10²².

  2. Q2. The percentage of oxygen by mass in H₂SO₄ is about:

    • A. 32.7%
    • B. 16.3%
    • C. 48.9%
    • D. 65.3% ✓

    Answer: D. 65.3%

    Explanation: M(H₂SO₄) = 98; mass of O = 4 × 16 = 64; 64/98 × 100 = 65.3%.

  3. Q3. What volume is occupied by 11 g of CO₂ at STP?

    • A. 5.6 dm³ ✓
    • B. 11.2 dm³
    • C. 22.4 dm³
    • D. 2.8 dm³

    Answer: A. 5.6 dm³

    Explanation: 11/44 = 0.25 mol; 0.25 × 22.4 = 5.6 dm³.

  4. Q4. 2.4 g of Mg is added to a solution containing 0.1 mol of HCl (Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂). The volume of H₂ evolved at STP is:

    • A. 0.56 dm³
    • B. 4.48 dm³
    • C. 2.24 dm³
    • D. 1.12 dm³ ✓

    Answer: D. 1.12 dm³

    Explanation: Mg = 0.1 mol needs 0.2 mol HCl, so HCl (0.1 mol) is limiting; it gives 0.05 mol H₂ = 0.05 × 22.4 = 1.12 dm³.

  5. Q5. 10 g of H₂ and 64 g of O₂ are sparked together to form water. What mass of the excess reactant remains unreacted?

    • A. 16 g of O₂
    • B. No reactant is left over
    • C. 2 g of H₂ ✓
    • D. 8 g of H₂

    Answer: C. 2 g of H₂

    Explanation: O₂ = 2 mol needs 4 mol (8 g) H₂; H₂ supplied is 10 g, so 10 − 8 = 2 g of H₂ remains.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. 14 g of N₂ reacts with excess H₂ (N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃) and 8.5 g of NH₃ is obtained. The percentage yield is:

    • A. 100%
    • B. 60.7%
    • C. 25%
    • D. 50%
  2. Q7. A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% C and 14.3% H by mass, and its molar mass is 56 g mol⁻¹. Its molecular formula is:

    • A. C₅H₁₂
    • B. C₄H₈
    • C. C₄H₁₀
    • D. C₃H₆
  3. Q8. How many ions are produced when 0.1 mol of Al₂(SO₄)₃ dissolves completely in water?

    • A. 6.022 × 10²²
    • B. 1.807 × 10²³
    • C. 3.011 × 10²³
    • D. 1.204 × 10²³
  4. Q9. Magnesium consists of ²⁴Mg (79%), ²⁵Mg (10%) and ²⁶Mg (11%). Its average atomic mass is about:

    • A. 24.00
    • B. 24.32
    • C. 24.79
    • D. 25.00
  5. Q10. In a mass spectrometer operated at a fixed electric and magnetic field, which ion is deflected the most?

    • A. The ion with the largest m/e
    • B. The ion with the smallest m/e
    • C. The ion with the largest mass regardless of charge
    • D. All ions are deflected equally
  6. Q11. The numbers of neutrons and electrons in the ion ³⁷Cl⁻ (Z = 17) are respectively:

    • A. 20 and 17
    • B. 20 and 18
    • C. 17 and 18
    • D. 37 and 18
  7. Q12. Using Bohr's theory, the energy of the electron in the first orbit of Li²⁺ (Z = 3) is (energy of H in n = 1 is −13.6 eV):

    • A. −40.8 eV
    • B. −122.4 eV
    • C. −13.6 eV
    • D. −4.53 eV
  8. Q13. The minimum energy needed to remove an electron from the n = 2 orbit of a hydrogen atom is:

    • A. 3.4 eV
    • B. 6.8 eV
    • C. 10.2 eV
    • D. 13.6 eV
  9. Q14. In hydrogen, the second line of the Balmer series arises from the n = 4 → n = 2 transition. Its wavelength is about (R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹):

    • A. 365 nm
    • B. 486 nm
    • C. 656 nm
    • D. 434 nm
  10. Q15. Using rₙ = 0.529 n²/Z Å, the radius of the second Bohr orbit of He⁺ (Z = 2) is:

    • A. 0.529 Å
    • B. 2.116 Å
    • C. 1.058 Å
    • D. 0.265 Å
  11. Q16. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 150 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is about (h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s, m = 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C):

    • A. 1 × 10⁻¹² m
    • B. 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ m
    • C. 1 × 10⁻⁸ m
    • D. 1 × 10⁻⁹ m
  12. Q17. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle implies that:

    • A. The exact position and exact momentum of an electron cannot both be known at the same time
    • B. An electron has no mass while moving
    • C. Electrons move in fixed circular orbits
    • D. The energy of an electron is never quantized
  13. Q18. The total number of orbitals in the shell with principal quantum number n = 3 is:

    • A. 6
    • B. 3
    • C. 9
    • D. 18
  14. Q19. For an electron in a 4d orbital, the possible values of the magnetic quantum number m are:

    • A. 0, ±1, ±2, ±3
    • B. 0, ±1, ±2
    • C. 1, 2, 3, 4
    • D. 0, ±1
  15. Q20. Which ion has the electronic configuration [Ar] 3d¹⁰?

    • A. Ti⁴⁺
    • B. Fe²⁺
    • C. Zn²⁺
    • D. Mn²⁺
  16. Q21. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe³⁺ (Z of Fe = 26) is:

    • A. 5
    • B. 3
    • C. 6
    • D. 4
  17. Q22. An element has the valence-shell configuration 4s² 4p³. Its position in the periodic table is:

    • A. Period 3, Group 15
    • B. Period 4, Group 13
    • C. Period 4, Group 3
    • D. Period 4, Group 15
  18. Q23. Light with photon energy 5.0 eV falls on a metal whose work function is 2.0 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is:

    • A. 7.0 eV
    • B. 2.5 eV
    • C. 2.0 eV
    • D. 3.0 eV
  19. Q24. The frequency of a photon carrying 3.3 × 10⁻¹⁹ J of energy is about (h = 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ J s):

    • A. 2 × 10¹⁴ Hz
    • B. 2 × 10¹⁵ Hz
    • C. 5 × 10¹⁴ Hz
    • D. 5 × 10¹⁵ Hz
  20. Q25. In Rutherford's gold-foil experiment, the observation that most α-particles passed straight through the foil showed that:

    • A. The nucleus is negatively charged
    • B. α-particles have no mass
    • C. Most of the volume of an atom is empty space
    • D. Electrons are embedded in a positive sphere
  21. Q26. The neutron was discovered by Chadwick when:

    • A. Beryllium was bombarded with α-particles
    • B. Gold foil was bombarded with electrons
    • C. Hydrogen gas was placed in a discharge tube
    • D. Uranium salts darkened a photographic plate
  22. Q27. What volume of O₂ measured at STP is needed for the complete combustion of 16 g of methane (CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O)?

    • A. 22.4 dm³
    • B. 11.2 dm³
    • C. 67.2 dm³
    • D. 44.8 dm³
  23. Q28. What mass of KClO₃ (M = 122.5) must be decomposed to give 3.36 dm³ of O₂ at STP (2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂)?

    • A. 6.13 g
    • B. 12.25 g
    • C. 24.5 g
    • D. 18.4 g
  24. Q29. Which sample contains the same number of molecules as 16 g of O₂?

    • A. 18 g of H₂O
    • B. 28 g of N₂
    • C. 22 g of CO₂
    • D. 16 g of CH₄
  25. Q30. A p orbital has how many nodal planes passing through the nucleus?

    • A. 0
    • B. 2
    • C. 1
    • D. 3