ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Solutions and Electrochemistry (Set 2)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Solutions and Electrochemistry (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. 4.9 g of H₂SO₄ (M = 98) is dissolved in water to make 500 cm³ of solution. Its molarity is:

    • A. 0.01 M
    • B. 0.1 M ✓
    • C. 0.05 M
    • D. 0.2 M

    Answer: B. 0.1 M

    Explanation: Moles = 4.9/98 = 0.05 mol; M = 0.05/0.5 dm³ = 0.1 M.

  2. Q2. What mass of NaCl (M = 58.5) is needed to prepare 250 cm³ of a 0.2 M solution?

    • A. 5.85 g
    • B. 11.7 g
    • C. 2.925 g ✓
    • D. 1.46 g

    Answer: C. 2.925 g

    Explanation: Moles = 0.2 × 0.25 = 0.05 mol; mass = 0.05 × 58.5 = 2.925 g.

  3. Q3. 6 g of urea (M = 60) is dissolved in 250 g of water. The molality of the solution is:

    • A. 0.24 m
    • B. 0.1 m
    • C. 0.4 m ✓
    • D. 0.025 m

    Answer: C. 0.4 m

    Explanation: Moles = 6/60 = 0.1 mol; molality = 0.1/0.250 kg = 0.4 mol kg⁻¹.

  4. Q4. The mole fraction of the solute in a 1 molal aqueous solution is about:

    • A. 0.055
    • B. 0.018 ✓
    • C. 0.1
    • D. 0.5

    Answer: B. 0.018

    Explanation: 1 mol solute per 1000 g water (55.5 mol): x = 1/(1 + 55.5) ≈ 0.0177.

  5. Q5. Concentrated HCl is 36.5% HCl by mass and has a density of 1.2 g cm⁻³. Its molarity is:

    • A. 36.5 M
    • B. 12 M ✓
    • C. 10 M
    • D. 1.2 M

    Answer: B. 12 M

    Explanation: 1 dm³ has mass 1200 g, of which 0.365 × 1200 = 438 g is HCl = 12 mol; so 12 M.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. 100 cm³ of 0.5 M NaCl is mixed with 300 cm³ of 0.1 M NaCl. The molarity of the mixture is:

    • A. 0.15 M
    • B. 0.6 M
    • C. 0.2 M
    • D. 0.3 M
  2. Q7. A 1 kg sample of water contains 0.002 g of lead. The concentration of lead in parts per million (ppm) is:

    • A. 2 ppm
    • B. 20 ppm
    • C. 0.2 ppm
    • D. 0.002 ppm
  3. Q8. At a certain temperature, p°(benzene) = 100 torr and p°(toluene) = 40 torr. For an ideal equimolar mixture, the mole fraction of benzene in the vapour is about:

    • A. 0.71
    • B. 0.50
    • C. 0.29
    • D. 0.60
  4. Q9. 1.8 g of a non-electrolyte in 100 g of water raises the boiling point by 0.052 K (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol⁻¹). The molar mass of the solute is:

    • A. 18 g mol⁻¹
    • B. 180 g mol⁻¹
    • C. 360 g mol⁻¹
    • D. 90 g mol⁻¹
  5. Q10. Assuming complete dissociation, a 0.1 m aqueous CaCl₂ solution freezes at about (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹):

    • A. −0.558°C
    • B. −0.186°C
    • C. −0.372°C
    • D. −0.744°C
  6. Q11. Which 0.1 m aqueous solution has the highest boiling point (assume complete dissociation)?

    • A. MgSO₄
    • B. Al₂(SO₄)₃
    • C. KCl
    • D. Urea
  7. Q12. Colligative properties of a dilute solution depend on:

    • A. The chemical nature of the solute
    • B. The number of solute particles, not their nature
    • C. The molar mass of the solvent only
    • D. The colour of the solute
  8. Q13. The oxidation number of oxygen in OF₂ is:

    • A. −2
    • B. +1
    • C. +2
    • D. −1
  9. Q14. The oxidation number of chromium in the dichromate ion, Cr₂O₇²⁻, is:

    • A. +12
    • B. +3
    • C. +6
    • D. +7
  10. Q15. In the reaction 3Cl₂ + 6NaOH(hot, conc.) → 5NaCl + NaClO₃ + 3H₂O, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to:

    • A. −1 and +5
    • B. −1 and +1
    • C. +5 only
    • D. −1 only
  11. Q16. In acidic solution MnO₄⁻ oxidizes oxalate ions: 2MnO₄⁻ + 5C₂O₄²⁻ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 10CO₂ + 8H₂O. How many moles of CO₂ are produced per mole of MnO₄⁻ consumed?

    • A. 2.5 mol
    • B. 2 mol
    • C. 5 mol
    • D. 10 mol
  12. Q17. In the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous NaCl with inert electrodes, the products at the cathode and anode are respectively:

    • A. H₂ and O₂
    • B. Na and Cl₂
    • C. H₂ and Cl₂
    • D. Na and O₂
  13. Q18. Aqueous CuSO₄ is electrolysed using copper electrodes. Which statement is correct?

    • A. The blue colour fades steadily
    • B. Oxygen is evolved at the anode
    • C. Hydrogen is evolved at the cathode
    • D. Copper dissolves from the anode and is deposited on the cathode
  14. Q19. What mass of copper is deposited from CuSO₄ solution by 0.5 faraday of charge (Cu = 63.5)?

    • A. 7.94 g
    • B. 15.875 g
    • C. 63.5 g
    • D. 31.75 g
  15. Q20. What volume of O₂ at STP is liberated at the anode by 1 faraday of charge during electrolysis of acidified water?

    • A. 5.6 dm³
    • B. 11.2 dm³
    • C. 2.8 dm³
    • D. 22.4 dm³
  16. Q21. A current of 2 A is passed through AgNO₃ solution for 965 s. The mass of silver deposited is (Ag = 108, 1 F = 96500 C):

    • A. 1.08 g
    • B. 2.16 g
    • C. 0.54 g
    • D. 4.32 g
  17. Q22. The same quantity of electricity is passed through AgNO₃ and CuSO₄ solutions in series. If 1.08 g of Ag is deposited, the mass of Cu deposited is (Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5):

    • A. 0.3175 g
    • B. 1.08 g
    • C. 0.635 g
    • D. 0.159 g
  18. Q23. Given E°(Ni²⁺/Ni) = −0.25 V and E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) = +0.34 V, the standard emf of the cell Ni | Ni²⁺ || Cu²⁺ | Cu is:

    • A. 0.09 V
    • B. 0.34 V
    • C. −0.59 V
    • D. 0.59 V
  19. Q24. Silver nitrate solution should not be stored in a copper vessel because (E°: Cu²⁺/Cu = +0.34 V, Ag⁺/Ag = +0.80 V):

    • A. Ag⁺ oxidizes copper, so the vessel dissolves and silver is deposited
    • B. Copper catalyses the decomposition of NO₃⁻
    • C. Copper is a weaker reducing agent than silver
    • D. Silver reduces Cu²⁺ to copper
  20. Q25. The salt bridge of a galvanic cell is usually filled with KCl or KNO₃ in agar gel because:

    • A. They are strong oxidizing agents
    • B. They supply electrons to the external circuit
    • C. Their ions have nearly equal mobilities and do not react with the electrode solutions
    • D. They raise the emf of the cell
  21. Q26. Which of the following is a rechargeable (secondary) cell?

    • A. Alkaline manganese cell
    • B. Nickel–cadmium cell
    • C. Dry (Leclanché) cell
    • D. Silver oxide button cell
  22. Q27. The electrical conductance of an aqueous electrolyte solution increases with temperature mainly because:

    • A. The number of free electrons increases
    • B. The solution becomes more concentrated
    • C. The ions combine to form molecules
    • D. The ions move faster as viscosity falls and hydration decreases
  23. Q28. An aqueous solution of NH₄Cl is acidic because:

    • A. Cl⁻ ions react with water to give HCl
    • B. NH₄⁺ ions hydrolyse: NH₄⁺ + H₂O ⇌ NH₃ + H₃O⁺
    • C. NH₄Cl is a strong acid
    • D. It releases OH⁻ ions
  24. Q29. Hydrogen peroxide reacts as H₂O₂ + 2I⁻ + 2H⁺ → I₂ + 2H₂O. In this reaction H₂O₂ acts as:

    • A. A reducing agent, and the oxidation number of O rises from −1 to 0
    • B. An acid only
    • C. A catalyst
    • D. An oxidizing agent, and the oxidation number of O falls from −1 to −2
  25. Q30. Which statement about an electrolytic cell is correct?

    • A. The anode is the negative electrode
    • B. Oxidation takes place at the cathode
    • C. Electrical energy drives a non-spontaneous chemical reaction
    • D. Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy