ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Periodic Table, s- and p-Block Elements (Set 5)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Periodic Table, s- and p-Block Elements (Set 5): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. Using Slater's rules (other electrons in the same ns, np group count 0.35 each; electrons in the n − 1 shell 0.85 each; deeper electrons 1.00 each), the effective nuclear charge on a 3p electron of a chlorine atom (Z = 17) is

    • A. 6.10 ✓
    • B. 10.90
    • C. 2.20
    • D. 7.00

    Answer: A. 6.10

    Explanation: Cl: 1s² 2s²2p⁶ 3s²3p⁵. Screening: 6 other n = 3 electrons × 0.35 = 2.10; 8 electrons in n = 2 × 0.85 = 6.80; 2 electrons in n = 1 × 1.00 = 2.00. σ = 10.90, so Z* = 17 − 10.90 = 6.10.

  2. Q2. In Period 3 (Na to Ar), which two elements have a first ionisation energy lower than that of the element immediately before them?

    • A. Si and Cl
    • B. Mg and P
    • C. Al and P
    • D. Al and S ✓

    Answer: D. Al and S

    Explanation: Al (3p¹, a p electron is easier to remove than the Mg 3s² pair) and S (3p⁴, the paired p electron is repelled) are the dips: Mg 738 > Al 578 and P 1012 > S 1000 kJ mol⁻¹.

  3. Q3. Gallium (Z = 31) has a slightly smaller atomic radius (about 135 pm) than aluminium (about 143 pm). The best explanation is that

    • A. Ga loses its 4p electron more easily than Al loses its 3p electron
    • B. the ten 3d electrons in Ga shield the nuclear charge poorly ✓
    • C. Ga has a lower nuclear charge than Al
    • D. Ga has fewer shells than Al

    Answer: B. the ten 3d electrons in Ga shield the nuclear charge poorly

    Explanation: Between Al and Ga the d-block elements intervene. Their 3d electrons shield poorly, so the valence electrons of Ga feel a larger effective nuclear charge and the atom does not grow.

  4. Q4. In aqueous solution the ionic mobility of the alkali-metal ions increases in the order Li⁺ < Na⁺ < K⁺ < Rb⁺ < Cs⁺. This is mainly because

    • A. the smaller ions have a lower charge
    • B. the smaller ions are more heavily hydrated, so their hydrated radii are larger ✓
    • C. the heavier ions are less hydrated because they have a higher charge
    • D. the larger ions have a higher charge density

    Answer: B. the smaller ions are more heavily hydrated, so their hydrated radii are larger

    Explanation: Li⁺ has the highest charge density and attracts the most water molecules, so the hydrated ion is the largest and moves slowest under an electric field.

  5. Q5. When potassium burns in excess oxygen the main product is KO₂. Which statement about it is correct?

    • A. It is paramagnetic because O₂⁻ has one unpaired electron ✓
    • B. It is diamagnetic because every electron in O₂⁻ is paired
    • C. It is diamagnetic because it contains the peroxide ion O₂²⁻
    • D. It is diamagnetic because it contains only paired electrons in O²⁻

    Answer: A. It is paramagnetic because O₂⁻ has one unpaired electron

    Explanation: KO₂ is K⁺ O₂⁻. O₂⁻ has 17 electrons: σ²σ*²σ²π⁴π*³, giving one unpaired electron (bond order 1.5), so the compound is paramagnetic and coloured.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Which products are formed when sodium nitrate is heated strongly?

    • A. NaOH and NO₂
    • B. Na₂O₂ and NO
    • C. NaNO₂ and O₂
    • D. Na and N₂O₅
  2. Q7. Which of these Group 2 carbonates decomposes most easily on heating?

    • A. CaCO₃
    • B. BeCO₃
    • C. BaCO₃
    • D. MgCO₃
  3. Q8. Gypsum, CaSO₄·2H₂O, is heated at 120 °C to give plaster of Paris, CaSO₄·½H₂O. What mass of gypsum (M = 172) is needed to prepare 14.5 g of plaster of Paris (M = 145)? (Ca = 40, S = 32, O = 16)

    • A. 17.2 g
    • B. 34.4 g
    • C. 8.6 g
    • D. 14.5 g
  4. Q9. Hard water contains 81 mg dm⁻³ of Ca(HCO₃)₂ (M = 162) as its only hardness. Expressed as mg dm⁻³ of CaCO₃ (M = 100), the hardness is

    • A. 81 mg dm⁻³
    • B. 100 mg dm⁻³
    • C. 25 mg dm⁻³
    • D. 50 mg dm⁻³
  5. Q10. In the Solvay process 117 g of NaCl is converted to Na₂CO₃ with an overall yield of 80 %. What mass of Na₂CO₃ is obtained? (Na₂CO₃ = 106; NaCl = 58.5)

    • A. 169.6 g
    • B. 42.4 g
    • C. 106 g
    • D. 84.8 g
  6. Q11. In the diborane molecule, B₂H₆, how many three-centre two-electron (B–H–B) bonds are there?

    • A. 4
    • B. 6
    • C. 2
    • D. 1
  7. Q12. 5.4 g of aluminium (Al = 27) is allowed to react completely with excess aqueous NaOH, giving Na[Al(OH)₄] and H₂. What volume of H₂ is produced at STP (22.4 dm³ mol⁻¹)?

    • A. 6.72 dm³
    • B. 4.48 dm³
    • C. 13.44 dm³
    • D. 3.36 dm³
  8. Q13. Why is PbO₂ a strong oxidising agent whereas SnO₂ is not?

    • A. Pb is a more electronegative element than Sn is
    • B. Pb has more unpaired valence electrons than Sn has
    • C. the Pb⁴⁺ ion is smaller in size than Sn⁴⁺ is
    • D. Pb(II) is favoured over Pb(IV) by the inert-pair effect
  9. Q14. In the manufacture of silicones, which hydrolysed chloride acts as a chain terminator?

    • A. (CH₃)₂SiCl₂
    • B. SiCl₄
    • C. CH₃SiCl₃
    • D. (CH₃)₃SiCl
  10. Q15. In a sheet (two-dimensional) silicate each SiO₄ tetrahedron shares three of its oxygen atoms. The formula of the anion per repeating unit is

    • A. (Si₂O₅)ₙ²ⁿ⁻
    • B. (Si₄O₁₁)ₙ⁶ⁿ⁻
    • C. (SiO₃)ₙ²ⁿ⁻
    • D. (SiO₂)ₙ
  11. Q16. Which pair of gases is the main constituent of water gas, produced by passing steam over red-hot coke?

    • A. CH₄ and CO
    • B. CO and N₂
    • C. CO₂ and H₂
    • D. CO and H₂
  12. Q17. In the Ostwald process the overall change is NH₃ + 2O₂ → HNO₃ + H₂O. What mass of oxygen is needed to make 126 g of HNO₃ at 100 % efficiency? (H = 1, N = 14, O = 16)

    • A. 32 g
    • B. 256 g
    • C. 64 g
    • D. 128 g
  13. Q18. Phosphorous acid, H₃PO₃, is dibasic. What mass of NaOH (40 g mol⁻¹) is needed to neutralise 0.100 mol of H₃PO₃ completely?

    • A. 8.0 g
    • B. 4.0 g
    • C. 12.0 g
    • D. 16.0 g
  14. Q19. Moist sulphur dioxide bleaches coloured flowers, but the colour slowly returns on standing in air, whereas bleaching by chlorine is permanent. This is because

    • A. both bleach by reduction, but Cl₂ forms a more stable product
    • B. SO₂ bleaches by absorbing the dye on its surface
    • C. SO₂ bleaches by oxidation while Cl₂ bleaches by reduction
    • D. SO₂ bleaches by reduction, which air can reverse, while Cl₂ bleaches by oxidation
  15. Q20. Hot concentrated NaOH reacts with chlorine: 3Cl₂ + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO₃ + 3H₂O. How many moles of NaClO₃ are formed from 0.60 mol of Cl₂?

    • A. 0.60 mol
    • B. 0.20 mol
    • C. 0.10 mol
    • D. 0.30 mol
  16. Q21. Which is the correct order of acid strength of the hypohalous acids?

    • A. HOI > HOBr > HOCl
    • B. HOCl = HOBr = HOI
    • C. HOCl > HOBr > HOI
    • D. HOBr > HOCl > HOI
  17. Q22. The interhalogen compound IF₇ has the shape and central-atom hybridisation

    • A. trigonal bipyramidal, sp³d
    • B. pentagonal bipyramidal, sp³d³
    • C. octahedral, sp³d²
    • D. square antiprismatic, sp³d⁴
  18. Q23. Bartlett prepared the first noble-gas compound, Xe⁺[PtF₆]⁻, after noticing that

    • A. xenon has a very high electron affinity
    • B. xenon is more reactive than helium because it has the smallest atomic size
    • C. the first ionisation energy of xenon is close to that of O₂, which PtF₆ had already oxidised
    • D. PtF₆ is a strong reducing agent
  19. Q24. What volume of hydrogen at STP (22.4 dm³ mol⁻¹) is released when 4.2 g of calcium hydride (CaH₂, M = 42) reacts completely with water?

    • A. 1.12 dm³
    • B. 4.48 dm³
    • C. 8.96 dm³
    • D. 2.24 dm³
  20. Q25. Which of the following is a neutral oxide?

    • A. CO₂
    • B. Na₂O
    • C. N₂O
    • D. SO₃
  21. Q26. Aluminium carbide reacts with water: Al₄C₃ + 12H₂O → 4Al(OH)₃ + 3CH₄. How many moles of methane form from 0.50 mol of Al₄C₃? (Be₂C reacts similarly, one example of the Be–Al diagonal relationship.)

    • A. 3.0 mol
    • B. 6.0 mol
    • C. 0.50 mol
    • D. 1.5 mol
  22. Q27. A newly made element has atomic number 115. Given the pattern of filling (…7s² 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7p³), it should be placed in

    • A. Group 15, Period 6
    • B. Group 15, Period 7
    • C. Group 5, Period 7
    • D. Group 13, Period 7
  23. Q28. The first electron affinities (kJ mol⁻¹ released) are C 122, N about −7 (essentially zero), O 141 and F 328. Why is the value for nitrogen so much lower than those of its neighbours?

    • A. Its nuclear charge is smaller than that of carbon
    • B. Its half-filled 2p³ subshell is stable, so an added electron must pair
    • C. Its 2s subshell is full, so no electron can be added
    • D. Its atomic radius is larger than that of C, O or F
  24. Q29. In the dimer Al₂Cl₆, how many chlorine atoms are bridging, and how do the bridges form?

    • A. 6, all of them forming equal covalent bonds
    • B. 4, all of them forming ionic Al³⁺···Cl⁻ links
    • C. 2, each forming a bond using no lone pair at all
    • D. 2, each donating a lone pair to the second Al atom
  25. Q30. 16.4 g of Ca(NO₃)₂ (M = 164) is decomposed completely: 2Ca(NO₃)₂ → 2CaO + 4NO₂ + O₂. What volume of gas is produced at STP? (22.4 dm³ mol⁻¹; treat NO₂ as an ideal gas and ignore dimerisation)

    • A. 11.2 dm³
    • B. 5.6 dm³
    • C. 1.12 dm³
    • D. 2.24 dm³