ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Gases, Liquids and Solids (Set 5)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Gases, Liquids and Solids (Set 5): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. The relative rates of effusion of ²³⁵UF₆ and ²³⁸UF₆ (F = 19; take isotopic masses equal to mass numbers) under identical conditions is closest to

    • A. 1.0000 : 1
    • B. 1.0043 : 1 ✓
    • C. 1.0086 : 1
    • D. 1.0172 : 1

    Answer: B. 1.0043 : 1

    Explanation: M(²³⁵UF₆) = 235 + 114 = 349; M(²³⁸UF₆) = 352. Rate ratio = √(352/349) = 1.0043. The tiny difference is why thousands of stages are needed for enrichment.

  2. Q2. 4.0 g of helium and 32 g of oxygen gas are placed together in a 10.0 dm³ vessel at 300 K. Taking R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ and ideal behaviour (He = 4, O₂ = 32), what is the partial pressure of helium?

    • A. 4.93 atm
    • B. 0.246 atm
    • C. 2.46 atm ✓
    • D. 1.23 atm

    Answer: C. 2.46 atm

    Explanation: n(He) = 1.0 mol and n(O₂) = 1.0 mol. Each gas behaves as if alone: P(He) = nRT/V = 1.0 × 0.0821 × 300/10.0 = 2.46 atm (total 4.93 atm).

  3. Q3. 100 cm³ of hydrogen is collected over water at 27 °C when the total pressure is 760 torr (vapour pressure of water at 27 °C = 27 torr). What is the volume of the dry hydrogen at STP (760 torr, 273 K)?

    • A. 80.1 cm³
    • B. 87.8 cm³ ✓
    • C. 91.0 cm³
    • D. 96.4 cm³

    Answer: B. 87.8 cm³

    Explanation: P(H₂) = 760 − 27 = 733 torr. V₀ = 100 × (733/760) × (273/300) = 87.8 cm³. (Forgetting the vapour pressure gives 91.0 cm³.)

  4. Q4. What is the density of sulphur dioxide gas (M = 64 g mol⁻¹) at 2.00 atm and 400 K, assuming ideal behaviour? (R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 2.86 g dm⁻³
    • B. 7.80 g dm⁻³
    • C. 3.90 g dm⁻³ ✓
    • D. 1.95 g dm⁻³

    Answer: C. 3.90 g dm⁻³

    Explanation: d = PM/RT = (2.00 × 64)/(0.0821 × 400) = 3.90 g dm⁻³.

  5. Q5. Which of these gases would have the smallest van der Waals constant 'a' (the measure of intermolecular attraction)?

    • A. CH₄
    • B. NH₃
    • C. H₂
    • D. He ✓

    Answer: D. He

    Explanation: 'a' reflects attraction between molecules. Helium atoms are small and least polarisable (a ≈ 0.034 dm⁶ atm mol⁻²), whereas NH₃ is polar and hydrogen-bonded with a ≈ 4.2.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. 1.0 mol of a gas occupies 0.200 dm³ at 100 atm and 300 K. The compression factor Z = PV/nRT is nearest to (R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 0.81
    • B. 1.00
    • C. 0.41
    • D. 1.23
  2. Q7. What is the ratio of the root-mean-square speed of CH₄ (M = 16) at 300 K to that of SO₂ (M = 64) at 1200 K?

    • A. 1 : 2
    • B. 4 : 1
    • C. 2 : 1
    • D. 1 : 1
  3. Q8. What is the total translational kinetic energy of 2.0 mol of an ideal monatomic gas at 400 K? (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 9.98 kJ
    • B. 14.96 kJ
    • C. 3.33 kJ
    • D. 6.65 kJ
  4. Q9. Two flasks are connected by a closed stopcock: flask A (2.0 dm³) holds nitrogen at 3.0 atm and flask B (3.0 dm³) holds argon at 2.0 atm, both at the same temperature. After the stopcock is opened and the gases mix, what is the partial pressure of nitrogen?

    • A. 3.0 atm
    • B. 0.6 atm
    • C. 1.2 atm
    • D. 2.4 atm
  5. Q10. A gas mixture contains 28 g of N₂, 8 g of CH₄ and 4 g of He (N = 14, C = 12, H = 1, He = 4). If the total pressure is 5.0 atm, the partial pressure of CH₄ is

    • A. 1.6 atm
    • B. 0.8 atm
    • C. 1.0 atm
    • D. 2.0 atm
  6. Q11. Approximately how many gas molecules are present in 1.0 cm³ of any ideal gas at 273 K and 1 atm? (R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹; Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³)

    • A. 2.7 × 10¹⁹
    • B. 6.0 × 10²⁰
    • C. 2.7 × 10²²
    • D. 4.5 × 10⁻⁵
  7. Q12. An air bubble of volume 2.0 cm³ at the bottom of a lake, where the pressure is 4.0 atm and the temperature is 7 °C, rises to the surface at 1.0 atm and 27 °C. Its volume on reaching the surface is

    • A. 0.5 cm³
    • B. 7.5 cm³
    • C. 8.0 cm³
    • D. 8.6 cm³
  8. Q13. 10 cm³ of nitrogen and 30 cm³ of hydrogen react completely to form ammonia, N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃, all gases measured at the same temperature and pressure. What volume of ammonia is formed?

    • A. 10 cm³
    • B. 30 cm³
    • C. 20 cm³
    • D. 40 cm³
  9. Q14. A van der Waals gas has a = 3.6 dm⁶ atm mol⁻² and b = 0.040 dm³ mol⁻¹. Using Tc = 8a/27Rb, its critical temperature is nearest to (R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

    • A. 325 K
    • B. 130 K
    • C. 650 K
    • D. 81 K
  10. Q15. How much heat is needed to convert 36 g of ice at −10 °C into liquid water at 20 °C? (ΔH fusion = 6.01 kJ mol⁻¹; specific heats: ice 2.09 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹, water 4.184 J g⁻¹ K⁻¹)

    • A. 12.0 kJ
    • B. 15.8 kJ
    • C. 16.5 kJ
    • D. 15.0 kJ
  11. Q16. Water in a pressure cooker boils above 100 °C because

    • A. dissolved air in it raises the boiling point
    • B. its latent heat of vaporization is increased there
    • C. its vapour pressure must match the raised internal pressure
    • D. hydrogen bonding gets stronger at high pressure
  12. Q17. At 25 °C the vapour pressure of water is 23.8 torr. What is the partial pressure of water vapour in air at this temperature when the relative humidity is 50 %?

    • A. 23.8 torr
    • B. 47.6 torr
    • C. 760 torr
    • D. 11.9 torr
  13. Q18. 100 g of water freezes completely to ice of density 0.92 g cm⁻³. Taking the liquid water as 100 cm³, what is the volume of the ice formed?

    • A. 109 cm³
    • B. 92 cm³
    • C. 100 cm³
    • D. 91 cm³
  14. Q19. The fraction of space occupied by atoms in a body-centred cubic lattice is

    • A. 68 %
    • B. 52 %
    • C. 60 %
    • D. 74 %
  15. Q20. Aluminium crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with cell edge 4.05 Å. Its density is nearest to (Al = 27; Nₐ = 6.022 × 10²³)

    • A. 5.40 g cm⁻³
    • B. 2.70 g cm⁻³
    • C. 10.8 g cm⁻³
    • D. 1.35 g cm⁻³
  16. Q21. Sodium has a body-centred cubic structure with edge length 4.29 Å. The atomic radius of Na is

    • A. 1.52 Å
    • B. 3.71 Å
    • C. 1.86 Å
    • D. 2.15 Å
  17. Q22. The radii of Zn²⁺ and S²⁻ are 0.74 Å and 1.84 Å. Given the radius-ratio ranges 0.225–0.414 (tetrahedral), 0.414–0.732 (octahedral) and 0.732–1.0 (cubic), the coordination number of Zn²⁺ in zinc blende is

    • A. 6
    • B. 12
    • C. 8
    • D. 4
  18. Q23. In a crystal, atoms of X form a cubic close-packed (face-centred cubic) lattice and atoms of Y occupy half of the tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound is

    • A. XY₂
    • B. X₂Y
    • C. X₄Y
    • D. XY
  19. Q24. Which of the following statements about glass is correct?

    • A. It is an ionic crystal of sodium silicate with fixed melting point
    • B. It is a crystalline covalent network like quartz
    • C. It is an amorphous solid that softens over a range of temperatures
    • D. It has a long-range ordered lattice with a sharp melting point
  20. Q25. X-rays of wavelength 1.54 Å are reflected from crystal planes spaced 2.00 Å apart. What is the highest order of reflection that can be observed (nλ = 2d sin θ)?

    • A. 4
    • B. 1
    • C. 2
    • D. 3
  21. Q26. Graphite conducts electricity along its layers whereas diamond is an insulator. The reason is that in graphite

    • A. layers are held together by metallic bonds
    • B. carbon atoms are present as C⁺ ions in a sea of electrons
    • C. each carbon is sp³ bonded and has free valence electrons
    • D. each carbon is sp² bonded and has one delocalised p electron
  22. Q27. In the Linde process for liquefying air, the gas is cooled by

    • A. mixing with a colder gas stream
    • B. adiabatic compression in a piston
    • C. throttled expansion (Joule–Thomson effect)
    • D. passage through a bed of mercury
  23. Q28. NH₃ and HCl gases enter at opposite ends of a 100 cm horizontal tube. The white ring of NH₄Cl first appears at what distance from the NH₃ end? (N = 14, H = 1, Cl = 35.5; ideal diffusion)

    • A. 46.4 cm
    • B. 59.4 cm
    • C. 40.6 cm
    • D. 68.0 cm
  24. Q29. At STP (273 K, 1 atm) the density of a gas is 1.43 g dm⁻³. Taking R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, its molar mass is

    • A. 44 g mol⁻¹
    • B. 16 g mol⁻¹
    • C. 28 g mol⁻¹
    • D. 32 g mol⁻¹
  25. Q30. As the temperature of a real gas is raised well above its Boyle temperature, the behaviour of PV/nRT as pressure increases is that it

    • A. rises above 1 because repulsions (molecular volume) dominate
    • B. falls first and then never rises again with pressure
    • C. falls below 1 because attractions between molecules dominate
    • D. stays exactly at 1 because the gas has become ideal