ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Gases, Liquids and Solids (Set 2)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Gases, Liquids and Solids (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review.…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. A gas at 2 atm occupies 3 dm³. At constant temperature its pressure is lowered to 1.5 atm. Its new volume is:

    • A. 1 dm³
    • B. 4.5 dm³
    • C. 2.25 dm³
    • D. 4 dm³ ✓

    Answer: D. 4 dm³

    Explanation: Boyle's law: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ → V₂ = 2 × 3 / 1.5 = 4 dm³.

  2. Q2. 400 cm³ of a gas at 127°C is cooled at constant pressure until its volume becomes 300 cm³. The final temperature is:

    • A. 95°C
    • B. 0°C
    • C. 27°C ✓
    • D. −73°C

    Answer: C. 27°C

    Explanation: T₁ = 400 K; T₂ = T₁V₂/V₁ = 400 × 300/400 = 300 K = 27°C.

  3. Q3. How many moles of an ideal gas occupy 4.1 dm³ at 3 atm and 300 K (R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)?

    • A. 0.5 mol ✓
    • B. 2.0 mol
    • C. 1.0 mol
    • D. 0.25 mol

    Answer: A. 0.5 mol

    Explanation: n = PV/RT = 3 × 4.1 / (0.0821 × 300) ≈ 0.50 mol.

  4. Q4. 1.6 g of a gas occupies 1.12 dm³ at STP. Its molar mass is:

    • A. 32 g mol⁻¹ ✓
    • B. 16 g mol⁻¹
    • C. 44 g mol⁻¹
    • D. 64 g mol⁻¹

    Answer: A. 32 g mol⁻¹

    Explanation: Moles = 1.12/22.4 = 0.05 mol; M = 1.6/0.05 = 32 g mol⁻¹.

  5. Q5. The density of O₂ gas at 27°C and 1 atm is about (R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹):

    • A. 2.60 g dm⁻³
    • B. 1.30 g dm⁻³ ✓
    • C. 1.43 g dm⁻³
    • D. 0.65 g dm⁻³

    Answer: B. 1.30 g dm⁻³

    Explanation: d = PM/RT = 1 × 32 / (0.0821 × 300) ≈ 1.30 g dm⁻³ (lower than 1.43 g dm⁻³ at STP because the gas is warmer).

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. Under identical conditions, how does the rate of diffusion of CH₄ compare with that of SO₂?

    • A. CH₄ diffuses 2 times faster
    • B. SO₂ diffuses 2 times faster
    • C. CH₄ diffuses 4 times faster
    • D. Both diffuse at the same rate
  2. Q7. A vessel contains 0.2 mol of N₂ and 0.3 mol of O₂ at a total pressure of 5 atm. The partial pressure of O₂ is:

    • A. 2 atm
    • B. 3 atm
    • C. 0.3 atm
    • D. 1.5 atm
  3. Q8. A gas is collected over water at 25°C when the barometer reads 760 torr. The aqueous tension at 25°C is 24 torr. The pressure of the dry gas is:

    • A. 736 torr
    • B. 760 torr
    • C. 784 torr
    • D. 24 torr
  4. Q9. The total translational kinetic energy of 1 mol of an ideal gas at 300 K is about (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹):

    • A. 2.49 kJ
    • B. 7.48 kJ
    • C. 3.74 kJ
    • D. 1.25 kJ
  5. Q10. The root-mean-square speed of O₂ molecules at 27°C is about (R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹):

    • A. 484 m s⁻¹
    • B. 1530 m s⁻¹
    • C. 342 m s⁻¹
    • D. 158 m s⁻¹
  6. Q11. At what temperature will SO₂ molecules have the same root-mean-square speed as O₂ molecules at 27°C?

    • A. 327°C
    • B. 150°C
    • C. 54°C
    • D. 600°C
  7. Q12. For a real gas, a compressibility factor Z = PV/nRT less than 1 indicates that:

    • A. Repulsive forces dominate
    • B. Intermolecular attractive forces dominate
    • C. The gas molecules have no volume
    • D. The gas behaves ideally
  8. Q13. In the van der Waals equation, the term an²/V² is added to the observed pressure in order to correct for:

    • A. The finite volume of the gas molecules
    • B. The mass of the gas molecules
    • C. Attractive forces that reduce the force of molecular impacts on the walls
    • D. Changes in temperature
  9. Q14. Which gas has the highest critical temperature and is therefore the easiest to liquefy?

    • A. He
    • B. H₂
    • C. N₂
    • D. NH₃
  10. Q15. At constant temperature, a graph of PV against P for an ideal gas is:

    • A. A straight line parallel to the P axis
    • B. A straight line falling to zero
    • C. A straight line rising from the origin
    • D. A hyperbola
  11. Q16. Evaporation of a liquid causes cooling because:

    • A. Intermolecular forces become stronger
    • B. The vapour pressure of the liquid falls to zero
    • C. The molecules with the highest kinetic energy escape, lowering the average energy of those left
    • D. Heat is released by the escaping molecules
  12. Q17. Glycerol is purified by distillation under reduced pressure because:

    • A. Reduced pressure raises its boiling point
    • B. It forms an azeotrope with air
    • C. It has a very low boiling point
    • D. It decomposes at or near its normal boiling point, and lower pressure lets it boil at a lower temperature
  13. Q18. HF boils at about 19°C, higher than HCl (−85°C), but lower than H₂O (100°C). Why is the boiling point of water higher than that of HF?

    • A. F is less electronegative than O
    • B. Each H₂O molecule can form up to four hydrogen bonds, more than HF on average
    • C. HF molecules are heavier
    • D. HF has no hydrogen bonding
  14. Q19. Glycerol (propane-1,2,3-triol) is much more viscous than ethanol mainly because:

    • A. It is a non-polar molecule
    • B. It has a lower boiling point
    • C. It has a lower molar mass
    • D. Each molecule has three –OH groups that form extensive hydrogen bonds
  15. Q20. When a liquid crystal is heated, the temperature at which its turbid fluid becomes a clear, isotropic liquid is called the:

    • A. Melting point
    • B. Transition temperature of polymorphs
    • C. Clearing temperature
    • D. Critical temperature
  16. Q21. The number of atoms per unit cell and the coordination number in a face-centred cubic (fcc) lattice are respectively:

    • A. 1 and 6
    • B. 4 and 12
    • C. 4 and 6
    • D. 2 and 8
  17. Q22. A metal crystallizes in an fcc lattice with an edge length of 400 pm; the atoms touch along the face diagonal. Its atomic radius is about:

    • A. 141 pm
    • B. 100 pm
    • C. 200 pm
    • D. 173 pm
  18. Q23. Copper (M = 63.5) has an fcc lattice with edge length 361 pm. Its density is about (Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹):

    • A. 4.48 g cm⁻³
    • B. 8.96 g cm⁻³
    • C. 2.24 g cm⁻³
    • D. 17.9 g cm⁻³
  19. Q24. Which property distinguishes glass (an amorphous solid) from a crystalline solid such as quartz?

    • A. Glass shows anisotropy
    • B. Glass has a definite heat of fusion
    • C. Glass softens over a range of temperature instead of melting sharply
    • D. Glass has a regular long-range arrangement of particles
  20. Q25. Graphite conducts electricity along its layers because:

    • A. Its carbon atoms are sp³ hybridized
    • B. Each sp² carbon has one unhybridized p electron that is delocalized over the layer
    • C. It contains mobile ions
    • D. Its layers are joined by covalent bonds
  21. Q26. K₂SO₄ and K₂SeO₄ have similar formulae and crystallize with the same crystal structure. This phenomenon is called:

    • A. Polymorphism
    • B. Anisotropy
    • C. Allotropy
    • D. Isomorphism
  22. Q27. Graphite, zinc and magnesium crystallize in a system whose unit cell has two equal axes at 120° to each other and a third, unequal axis perpendicular to both. This system is:

    • A. Tetragonal
    • B. Monoclinic
    • C. Cubic
    • D. Hexagonal
  23. Q28. At the same temperature and pressure, 2 dm³ of H₂ and 2 dm³ of CO₂ contain:

    • A. Different numbers of molecules in the ratio 1 : 22
    • B. The same number of atoms
    • C. The same mass of gas
    • D. The same number of molecules
  24. Q29. Metals conduct electricity in the solid state because:

    • A. They contain hydrogen bonds
    • B. They have a sea of delocalized valence electrons
    • C. Their atoms are held by van der Waals forces
    • D. Their ions move freely through the lattice
  25. Q30. Which statement about the fourth state of matter, plasma, is correct?

    • A. It is a type of liquid crystal
    • B. It is a mixture of ions, free electrons and neutral particles and conducts electricity
    • C. It exists only below 0 K
    • D. It consists only of neutral molecules