ECAT — Engineering College Admission Test (UET)

ECAT Chemistry — Chemical Bonding (Set 2)

Take the ECAT Chemistry — Chemical Bonding (Set 2): 30 multiple-choice questions (40 minutes) with instant scoring and a full answer review. Covers 30…

What this test covers

Sample questions with answers

The first 5 questions of this test, with the correct answer and explanation.

  1. Q1. The shape and bond angle of the BF₃ molecule are:

    • A. Trigonal planar, 120° ✓
    • B. Trigonal pyramidal, 107°
    • C. T-shaped, 90°
    • D. Tetrahedral, 109.5°

    Answer: A. Trigonal planar, 120°

    Explanation: B has three bond pairs and no lone pair (sp²), so the molecule is trigonal planar with 120° angles.

  2. Q2. The hybridization of beryllium in gaseous BeCl₂ and the shape of the molecule are:

    • A. sp², bent
    • B. sp², trigonal planar
    • C. sp³, tetrahedral
    • D. sp, linear ✓

    Answer: D. sp, linear

    Explanation: Be has two bond pairs and no lone pairs; two sp hybrid orbitals point 180° apart, giving a linear molecule.

  3. Q3. The hydronium ion, H₃O⁺, has the shape:

    • A. Tetrahedral
    • B. Bent
    • C. Trigonal pyramidal ✓
    • D. Trigonal planar

    Answer: C. Trigonal pyramidal

    Explanation: O in H₃O⁺ has three bond pairs and one lone pair (sp³), so like NH₃ it is trigonal pyramidal.

  4. Q4. In but-1-en-3-yne, CH₂=CH–C≡CH, how many carbon atoms are sp hybridized?

    • A. 2 ✓
    • B. 3
    • C. 1
    • D. 4

    Answer: A. 2

    Explanation: The two carbons of the C≡C triple bond are sp; the two carbons of the C=C double bond are sp².

  5. Q5. How many σ and π bonds are present in but-2-enal, CH₃–CH=CH–CHO?

    • A. 10 σ and 2 π ✓
    • B. 9 σ and 2 π
    • C. 8 σ and 3 π
    • D. 11 σ and 2 π

    Answer: A. 10 σ and 2 π

    Explanation: σ: 6 C–H + 2 C–C + 1 (C=C) + 1 (C=O) = 10; π: one in C=C and one in C=O = 2.

The other 25 questions

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  1. Q6. According to MO theory, the bond order of N₂⁺ is:

    • A. 2
    • B. 3
    • C. 1.5
    • D. 2.5
  2. Q7. According to MO theory, the peroxide ion O₂²⁻ has:

    • A. Bond order 1 and is diamagnetic
    • B. Bond order 2 and is paramagnetic
    • C. Bond order 1.5 and is paramagnetic
    • D. Bond order 3 and is diamagnetic
  3. Q8. Which molecule is isoelectronic with N₂ and has the same bond order of 3?

    • A. O₂
    • B. CO
    • C. CN
    • D. NO
  4. Q9. HF has an observed dipole moment of 1.82 D and a bond length of 0.917 Å. Taking the electronic charge as 4.8 D per Å, its percentage ionic character is about:

    • A. 62%
    • B. 41%
    • C. 88%
    • D. 21%
  5. Q10. NH₃ has a much larger dipole moment than NF₃ although both are pyramidal. This is because:

    • A. NH₃ is planar
    • B. N–F bonds are non-polar
    • C. In NH₃ the lone-pair moment adds to the N–H bond moments, while in NF₃ it opposes the N–F bond moments
    • D. NF₃ has no lone pair
  6. Q11. Which compound is expected to be the most ionic?

    • A. HCl
    • B. CsF
    • C. BeCl₂
    • D. LiI
  7. Q12. The second ionization energy of sodium is about nine times its first ionization energy because:

    • A. Sodium has a small nuclear charge
    • B. Sodium is a non-metal
    • C. The second electron must be removed from the stable, inner 2p⁶ shell of Na⁺
    • D. The 3s electron is very tightly held
  8. Q13. The second electron affinity of oxygen (O⁻ + e⁻ → O²⁻) is:

    • A. Large and negative (exothermic)
    • B. Positive (energy must be absorbed)
    • C. Equal to the first electron affinity
    • D. Zero
  9. Q14. Which cation has the greatest polarizing power?

    • A. K⁺
    • B. Na⁺
    • C. Mg²⁺
    • D. Al³⁺
  10. Q15. Solid NaCl does not conduct electricity but molten NaCl does, because:

    • A. In the molten state the Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions are free to move
    • B. Melting converts the ionic bonds into covalent bonds
    • C. Molten NaCl contains molecules
    • D. Melting creates free electrons
  11. Q16. The C=C bond energy (614 kJ mol⁻¹) is less than twice the C–C bond energy (348 kJ mol⁻¹) because:

    • A. A π bond is stronger than a σ bond
    • B. The C=C bond is longer than C–C
    • C. Carbon is sp³ in ethene
    • D. A π bond is weaker than a σ bond due to less effective sideways overlap
  12. Q17. Given covalent radii C = 77 pm and Cl = 99 pm, the expected C–Cl bond length is about:

    • A. 154 pm
    • B. 176 pm
    • C. 22 pm
    • D. 198 pm
  13. Q18. The hybridization of phosphorus in PCl₅ and the bond angles present are:

    • A. sp³; 109.5° only
    • B. sp³d²; 90° only
    • C. sp³d; 90° and 120°
    • D. sp³d; 120° and 180° only
  14. Q19. In the adduct H₃N→BF₃, which statement is correct?

    • A. The bond is ionic
    • B. Both atoms donate one electron each
    • C. N donates its lone pair into the empty orbital of B
    • D. B donates a lone pair to N
  15. Q20. o-Nitrophenol is more volatile (lower boiling point) than p-nitrophenol because:

    • A. o-Nitrophenol is ionic
    • B. o-Nitrophenol forms intramolecular hydrogen bonds, while p-nitrophenol forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds
    • C. o-Nitrophenol has a higher molar mass
    • D. p-Nitrophenol has no –OH group
  16. Q21. BF₃ is planar while NF₃ is pyramidal. The reason is that:

    • A. BF₃ has a lone pair on boron
    • B. B is more electronegative than N
    • C. F atoms repel more strongly in NF₃
    • D. N in NF₃ has a lone pair, giving four electron pairs around it
  17. Q22. Which order of radii for the isoelectronic species S²⁻, Cl⁻, K⁺ and Ca²⁺ is correct?

    • A. Cl⁻ > S²⁻ > K⁺ > Ca²⁺
    • B. Ca²⁺ > K⁺ > Cl⁻ > S²⁻
    • C. K⁺ > Ca²⁺ > S²⁻ > Cl⁻
    • D. S²⁻ > Cl⁻ > K⁺ > Ca²⁺
  18. Q23. Across period 3 from Na to Cl, the atomic radius generally:

    • A. Increases because more shells are added
    • B. Decreases because the nuclear charge increases while electrons enter the same shell
    • C. Stays constant
    • D. Increases because shielding increases sharply
  19. Q24. The σ bond in an HCl molecule is formed by the overlap of:

    • A. 2p of H with 3p of Cl
    • B. 1s of H with 3s of Cl
    • C. Sideways overlap of two p orbitals
    • D. 1s of H with 3p of Cl
  20. Q25. The enthalpy change for CH₄(g) → C(g) + 4H(g) is +1664 kJ mol⁻¹. The average C–H bond energy is:

    • A. 416 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. 333 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. 832 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. 1664 kJ mol⁻¹
  21. Q26. Using bond energies (kJ mol⁻¹) C=C 614, H–H 436, C–C 348, C–H 413, ΔH for C₂H₄ + H₂ → C₂H₆ is:

    • A. +124 kJ mol⁻¹
    • B. −124 kJ mol⁻¹
    • C. −537 kJ mol⁻¹
    • D. −289 kJ mol⁻¹
  22. Q27. The SI-related unit of dipole moment, the debye (D), is equal to:

    • A. 1 × 10⁻¹⁰ C m
    • B. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C m
    • C. 3.336 × 10⁻³⁰ C m
    • D. 6.022 × 10⁻²³ C m
  23. Q28. Which statement about hybrid orbitals is correct?

    • A. Hybrid orbitals of an atom have different energies
    • B. The number of hybrid orbitals formed equals the number of atomic orbitals mixed
    • C. Only s and d orbitals can hybridize
    • D. Hybrid orbitals form π bonds by sideways overlap
  24. Q29. The F–B–F bond angle in BF₃ is 120°, but in BF₄⁻ it is about 109.5°. This change is because boron:

    • A. Changes from sp³ to sp²
    • B. Gains a lone pair in BF₄⁻
    • C. Loses an electron
    • D. Changes from sp² to sp³ hybridization on accepting an F⁻ ion
  25. Q30. Which molecule has a non-zero dipole moment?

    • A. CCl₄
    • B. CO₂
    • C. CHCl₃
    • D. BF₃